OK. I got it.
It seems to be about 50-50 when you look at all transactions.
Some changed the word MAN to read "ANYONE".
The King James Version and other translations have rendered the second phrase of this passage: “If a man desire the office….” This has given strength to the argument that this passage applies explicitly to the male gender.
It has been many years since I studied Greek. I hated it then as much as I do now. However, it is my understanding that the Greek pronoun "tis" refers either to a male or a female.” Thus, the rendering of this word as “anyone” or “whoever” can be understood.
But then when we come to the phrase......"HE desires a good office" that word HE is MASCULINE.
Then we we come to verse #2....the word HUSBAND is the ANTECEDANT to the 1st verse word of MAN and gives CONTEXT the meaning.
It seems to be about 50-50 when you look at all transactions.
Some changed the word MAN to read "ANYONE".
The King James Version and other translations have rendered the second phrase of this passage: “If a man desire the office….” This has given strength to the argument that this passage applies explicitly to the male gender.
It has been many years since I studied Greek. I hated it then as much as I do now. However, it is my understanding that the Greek pronoun "tis" refers either to a male or a female.” Thus, the rendering of this word as “anyone” or “whoever” can be understood.
But then when we come to the phrase......"HE desires a good office" that word HE is MASCULINE.
Then we we come to verse #2....the word HUSBAND is the ANTECEDANT to the 1st verse word of MAN and gives CONTEXT the meaning.
interesting