That is completely unbiblical. Human logic doesn't dictate the word of God or its application of it. Context does and the Authorial intent. You need to understand what is normative and what is descriptive in the word of God. The Holy Spirit not can use women HE does use women and HE does today. What about Ruth? Ruth is a book showing the genealogy of Christ and the coming Messiah.
What about Joel 2 and Acts 2? What about what Jesus said in Mark 16 In the scriptures where it says for example Ps 49:18
"Though while he lived he blessed his soul: and men will praise thee when thou doest well to thyself"
Are women to praise HIM too?
Are women covered in the word of God where they are not mentioned or only men?
Are women to be saved or are they saved by child baring as Paul said? Do they need to repent or only men? do they need to confess Jesus Christ as Lord or only men? Does the Holy Spirit come into women when they are saved or only men? Do only men Prophesy? IF so why did Joel get it wrong and Peter?
What about Joel 2 and Acts 2? What about what Jesus said in Mark 16 In the scriptures where it says for example Ps 49:18
"Though while he lived he blessed his soul: and men will praise thee when thou doest well to thyself"
Are women to praise HIM too?
Are women covered in the word of God where they are not mentioned or only men?
Are women to be saved or are they saved by child baring as Paul said? Do they need to repent or only men? do they need to confess Jesus Christ as Lord or only men? Does the Holy Spirit come into women when they are saved or only men? Do only men Prophesy? IF so why did Joel get it wrong and Peter?
The individuals, who are responding to my posts, treat my comments as if I am some sort of woman hater. Throwing all sorts of Scripture at me about how God used this woman or that. I am well aware but I am also well aware, that those doing so, are trying to cloud the Truth in human reasoning. The reasoning goes like this:
Paul could not have meant for women to keep silent and not teach in the assembly because one must except the way God used women throughout history. They often prophesied and spoke aloud in various places. Therefore, women obviously have the right to teach and speak wherever they like. God used men in many great ways but all were not Apostles.
The problem with this reasoning is, that it does not bring one any closer to muting the literal words, given by Paul, in those two Epistles.
Further they refuse to answer the questions which are raised or should be raised:
1) If Paul did not mean for a woman to teach, then why did he say it?
2) If Paul said that a woman was to remain silent and it was shameful for her to speak, why did he say this?
3) Where was the woman not to teach and speak?
4) Why were all of Jesus' Disciples men?
5) Why were all of the Apostles men and not one single woman?
6) Why is there no mention of a woman Elder/Preacher?
--- (Please don't give some verse that does not mention this person holding this office. That would be subjective reasoning not proved by objective Truth). ---
7) Why did women call their husbands and ones with authority, "lord" in the Old Testament?
--- (Could you imagine a woman calling her husband "lord" in this day and age) ---