I still think it is a problem with interpretation. Most Christians agree with the biblical teachings on the wife being in submission to the husband as to authority. So culturally we are still on board with that even if modern Feminism hates such phrases.
And this was what Paul was talking about in 1 Tim 2:12. Wife submitting to husband.
Anyone can see that when reading 1 Per 3:3
3Whose adorning let it not be that outward
adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;
And 2 Tim 2:11-12
9In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;
And then compare the fuller context of 1 Peter 3: 1-7 with 2 Tim 2:9-14 It is very obvious that it is talking about the wife being in subjection to the husband and I don't think anyone is arguing against that based on modern culture vs ancient Jewish culture or Ancient Near East Culture.
Therefore the problem is that bad interpretations throughout church history used this verse to say that Paul said a woman can't teach in the pulpit to men as this would be usurping authority over them. This is a bad interpretation. It is not usurping authority over anyone to teach the Bible.
Leaving 1 Tim 2:12 aside for a moment and we have heard 1 Tim 3 used to say that a pastor must be married. I don't think that is the the majority interpretation throughout church history. I suppose someone will correct me if I am wrong but I think that the majority interpretation is that "IF" he is married then only to one wife. This interpretation goes back as far as any other in church history writings. To say that it is an excuse used to explain modern culture does not work as it appears as far back as one searches in writings on these verses.
So it is a matter of interpretation not culture. We are not trying to teach that a wife should not be in subjection to her own husband.
It is true that culturally women have been oppressed in ancient times, in the Near East and in Israel by those who were hard hearted and carnal but not because of anything that the Bible teaches. There is nothing in the bible that oppressed women. Men did that on their own. We don't need to reinterpret the scripture to fit our culture.
Howbeit we don't send slaves back to their owners so we do understand that what Paul said then is not to be literally done today but the spiritual truth of paying a brothers debt and encouraging a debtor to give him is freedom might apply in some way you find yourself in. Y
ou would not use "husband of one wife" as a ban on women elders simply because Paul was assuming it would be a man/husband because of the culture. This is quite different than saying that culture mandates interpretation change. His advice still stands as it relates to blamelessness and not practicing polygamy. I don't think he was trying to make a point of gender but rather of blamelessness and assuming it would be a man that would be appointed by Timothy not specifically was he saying "don't appoint a woman" it was not necessary to say it because it was probably too uncommon to mention.
The only people who believe that Paul said that a pastor has to be married are those who have been taught that is what he meant in 1 tim and titus. Someone who reads it alone without outside influence would think he meant
"If" he is married, then only ONE wife. Because Paul had already been very verbose about the value of being like himself single. It is not possible that Paul would tell someone it is better to remain single if you can do so for undistracted devotion to the affairs of the Lord and not apply that same logic to a pastor. IMPOSSIBLE.
You've really misunderstood what I said my posts.
No where did I say that an elder must be married as you say.
Yes, I understand Christians have different interpretations. The reality is when there are two mutually exclusive claims they can't both be right. One or both must be wrong, there is no room for both to be right logically.
You say in your second to last paragraph that Paul uses "husband of one wife" to preach against polygamy. Your post also indicates the fact you didn't read what I said on that objection. You yourself even admit my point, which is that the nature of the language and Paul himself assumes it is a male in leadership.
No, Paul does not use the words "don't appoint a woman." The bible also does not use the word "Trinity" but that does not mean the doctrine the term represents isn't there. The language itself by virtue of the definition of the terms excludes the possibility of female leadership because as you yourself admit it assumes male leadership. So why is this so difficult?
Please answer these questions separately:
Why would Timothy appoint a man? Why would Paul assume it was a man?
You say then that it's a result of interpretation and not culture. Yet, in the very paragraph above you try to say that the scripture is a cultural issue and that Paul is only assuming it was a male to be appointed based on non-mandated cultural norms? You also again indicate here you don't understand what I was saying.
Let me spell out the interpretation vs culture issue I was trying to point out:
1) The holy spirit does not lead us to error.
2) You and I believe mutually exclusive things.
3) We cannot both be right.
4) One or both of us must be wrong.
5) One or both of us came to conclusions without the aid of the holy spirit, but rather by our own preferences, traditions, or cultural beliefs.
Can you please demonstrate you understand what is said in the 5 items listed above? I would greatly appreciate it. I don't want to be misrepresented. If it is a failure to present it on my part I would gladly fix that.
No where have I contended that a leader in the church or in Israel is/was required to be married or unmarried. I have not made any assertions to that point here today. I also think just to be fair, that although I agree with your conclusion about "if married" I don't think that you're conclusion has been presented with any evidence that creates a requirement for that conclusion. It is a topic that is a bit to the side of the main focus of this thread though, so fair enough.
Let me ask you this about 1 Timothy 3.
The saying is trustworthy: If anyone aspires to the
office of overseer, he desires a noble task. 2
Therefore an overseer[
a] must be above reproach, the husband of one wife,[
b] sober-minded, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, 3 not a drunkard, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money. 4
He must manage his own household well, with all
dignity keeping his children submissive, 5 for if someone does not
know how to manage his own household,
how will he care for God's church? 6 He must not be a recent convert, or he may become puffed up with conceit and fall into the condemnation of the devil. 7 Moreover, he must be well thought of by outsiders, so that he may not fall into disgrace, into a snare of the devil.
Please answer these separately:
1) What does verse 4 say must be managed well?
2) What are the components of a household?
3) Who manages a household?
4) What does verse 5 say must be managed well?
5) What are the components of a household?
6) Who is commanded to manage households well?
Thank you kindly sir!