Ok sword, first things first. Whether or not the Jews accepted Jesus Christ as the Messiah is not the issue. If they did not accept Him as the Messiah then there would be no need for them to conspire against Him. The question is was Jesus Chrsit the Messiah/Christ? Isaiah 9:6 is a prophecy pertaining to Jesus Christ saying He is not only the Messiah but He is "Mighty" God, Eternal Father, (and this does not mean the Messiah is the person of God the Father), Wonderful Counselor, Prince of Peace.
Regarding John 5:17,18 ask yourself what did Jesus say that so upset the Jews they accused Him of blasphemy and want to kill Him? And I mean what did Jesus say at all the references I gave you for them to want to kill Him. In John 5 here the Jews tell us what ticked them off at vs18. "Calling God His own Father which means to them that Jesus is equating Himself with God. And if you look at Luke 2:49 Jesus as a boy says the following to His parents, "And he said to them, Why is it that you were looking for Me? Did you not know that I HAD TO BE ABOUT MY FATHER'S BUSINESS?" Here Jesus is calling God the Father His own Father just like at John 5:17,18.
Now for John 10:30. "I and the Father, We are one." This means they are one in nature because the sheep are just as safe in the hands of Jesus Christ as they are in the Fahter's hands. I am "NOT" saying they are the same person. Nor is the text teaching they are "one" in purpose. Although they are one in purpose but not in this specific instance, do you know why?
Look at the context starting at vs33, "The Jews answered Him, For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out God." In the next verses Jesus Himself addresses (not this issue of being one in purpose) but He says at Vs36, "do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, "You are blaspheming, becasue I said , I am the Son of God?" In other words sword, Jesus is addressing the blasphemy charge, not the one in purpose issue. In fact, Jesus quotes Psalm 82:6, where God says, "I said ye are gods" and ye shall die like the men you are.
And do you know why Jesus brought up Psalme 82:6? He did it for a reason, so what was the reason? What Jesus is simply doing is taking the Jew's statment about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are being inconsistent. In effect, jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because he said to those by whom the word of God came, (at Psalm 82:6) "ye are gods,"
Since God is calling human judges gods (who btw where corrupt judges) why are you not accusing Him of blasphemy?
Now, if Jesus Christ would have just used the words and said, "I am God" do you really think they would have believed Him? In fact, you don't even believe Him nor do you believe the testimony of others in the New Testament that identified Jesus Christ as God. The fact of the matter is that Jesus Christ wants us to come to our own conclusion as to His identity which was the purpose of Matthew 16:13-17 which you brougt up. Remember, the Jews had the writings of the Old Testament but not the New Testament like we have where we can indeed come to the right conclusion, hopefully.
Opps, I almost forgot about John 8:58. "Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham sprang into existence I am." So what do the Jews do again? Vs59, Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him." Jesus is saying He existed before Abraham and the "I am" is what God said at Exodus 3:14. Now, you also have John the Baptist saying the following at John 1:15, "John bore witness of Him, and cried out, saying, "This was he of whom I said, He who comes after Me has a higher rank that I, (why) because HE EXISTED BEFORE ME." How did John the Baptist know Jesus existed before Him since John was six months older than Jesus? Next I will gladly deal with the trial of Jesus Christ at Matthew 26. So sword, any more questions please ask away.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Regarding John 5:17,18 ask yourself what did Jesus say that so upset the Jews they accused Him of blasphemy and want to kill Him? And I mean what did Jesus say at all the references I gave you for them to want to kill Him. In John 5 here the Jews tell us what ticked them off at vs18. "Calling God His own Father which means to them that Jesus is equating Himself with God. And if you look at Luke 2:49 Jesus as a boy says the following to His parents, "And he said to them, Why is it that you were looking for Me? Did you not know that I HAD TO BE ABOUT MY FATHER'S BUSINESS?" Here Jesus is calling God the Father His own Father just like at John 5:17,18.
Now for John 10:30. "I and the Father, We are one." This means they are one in nature because the sheep are just as safe in the hands of Jesus Christ as they are in the Fahter's hands. I am "NOT" saying they are the same person. Nor is the text teaching they are "one" in purpose. Although they are one in purpose but not in this specific instance, do you know why?
Look at the context starting at vs33, "The Jews answered Him, For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out God." In the next verses Jesus Himself addresses (not this issue of being one in purpose) but He says at Vs36, "do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, "You are blaspheming, becasue I said , I am the Son of God?" In other words sword, Jesus is addressing the blasphemy charge, not the one in purpose issue. In fact, Jesus quotes Psalm 82:6, where God says, "I said ye are gods" and ye shall die like the men you are.
And do you know why Jesus brought up Psalme 82:6? He did it for a reason, so what was the reason? What Jesus is simply doing is taking the Jew's statment about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are being inconsistent. In effect, jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because he said to those by whom the word of God came, (at Psalm 82:6) "ye are gods,"
Since God is calling human judges gods (who btw where corrupt judges) why are you not accusing Him of blasphemy?
Now, if Jesus Christ would have just used the words and said, "I am God" do you really think they would have believed Him? In fact, you don't even believe Him nor do you believe the testimony of others in the New Testament that identified Jesus Christ as God. The fact of the matter is that Jesus Christ wants us to come to our own conclusion as to His identity which was the purpose of Matthew 16:13-17 which you brougt up. Remember, the Jews had the writings of the Old Testament but not the New Testament like we have where we can indeed come to the right conclusion, hopefully.
Opps, I almost forgot about John 8:58. "Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham sprang into existence I am." So what do the Jews do again? Vs59, Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him." Jesus is saying He existed before Abraham and the "I am" is what God said at Exodus 3:14. Now, you also have John the Baptist saying the following at John 1:15, "John bore witness of Him, and cried out, saying, "This was he of whom I said, He who comes after Me has a higher rank that I, (why) because HE EXISTED BEFORE ME." How did John the Baptist know Jesus existed before Him since John was six months older than Jesus? Next I will gladly deal with the trial of Jesus Christ at Matthew 26. So sword, any more questions please ask away.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto