Christ was tempted LIKE as we are, but He never desired or was tempted to do evil.

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Jul 22, 2014
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If sin was already present as Jesus' body, then we have to believe Jesus was carrying on our sins since his birth. Which is ridiculous to believe. See, born into this world without sin. He was born of the seed of the woman and not of the seed of man. Sin is passed down thru the male seed. It is medically proven that the blood of a baby soley comes from the father. Have you ever thought about why God visited the sins of the fathers to the third and fourth generations? Have you ever thought about why genealogies are reckoned primarily thru men and never men?
Edit Correction:

Couple of typos here:

Meant to say, "See, He was born into this world."

Meant to say, "genealogies are reckoned primarily thru men and never women"
 
May 3, 2013
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If Jesus was 100 % man and 100 % God (as they said)

Why He needed to be tempted?

Within 10 or 20 years He would tell me, person to person.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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No, that would be called adding to Scripture. The Scriptures never say Jesus thought about for a second or two. Jesus answered the devil with Scripture how man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word of God that proceeds out of his mouth. If Jesus considered the devil's offer for a sccond or two, then that would be wrong desire or lust (By giving into his temptation).
Also, Jesus was fasting for a specific reason. The devil thought that if he could get the Son of God to break his fast, He would have sufficiently broke his commitment and placed him under his authority (by playing on the devil's terms).
 

Cassian

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Oct 12, 2013
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You can't know a person's heart or intentions back then. You are not God to know who is saved or unsaved. You can have an idea of who might be a true follower, but even followers of Jesus had turned back in following him. There are also those who preach another Jesus, too. This is what I believe what one is doing if they believe Jesus could do potential evil. That the Holy Son of God actually was internally tempted. As if there was some kind of darkness he struggled with. Sorry, the Scriptures say there is no darkness in God. And Jesus is God. So Jesus was externally tempted. Not internally tempted. Jesus could no more consider in doing evil than for rain in not being wet. If you disagree. Please provide Scripture.

So far, you are not even preaching Jesus. You have concocted an whole new version that cannot be found in scripture. You have created new terminology to suit your supposition/translations. There are no texts to refute it because your suppositions are not made from scripture in the first place.

Your comments above have nothing to do with my comments to which you are replying.



What verses are we talking about? You have to bring up a set of verses proving your case. I really didn't see that from anyone here. I seen two verses being pushed alot and just a lot of hot air.
I gave you several and you have completely slipped by them. You slipped by because you have no answer for them because they defeat some of the nonsense statements you are making.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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If Jesus was 100 % man and 100 % God (as they said)

Why He needed to be tempted?

Within 10 or 20 years He would tell me, person to person.
One of the reasons why Jesus was tempted was to show us how to resist temptation. When the devil tempted Jesus, our Lord responded with the Word of God. So if you are being tempted by something you feel the devil is attacking you in, then respond by quoting the Word of God over that temptation (Just as our Lord had done). Jesus also was tempted to let us know that He was in the same place of temptation that we were in so as to comfort us. It is not that Jesus was tempted internally like us by a sinful nature, but Jesus wanted to relate to us in the fact that He was a man who faced the same life problems that we had went thru. He is able to comfort us because He knows firsthand the temptations that came from demons like the devil (like in the wilderness) and other humans (Who were sinful).
 
Jul 22, 2014
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So far, you are not even preaching Jesus. You have concocted an whole new version that cannot be found in scripture. You have created new terminology to suit your supposition/translations. There are no texts to refute it because your suppositions are not made from scripture in the first place.

Your comments above have nothing to do with my comments to which you are replying.


I gave you several and you have completely slipped by them. You slipped by because you have no answer for them because they defeat some of the nonsense statements you are making.
If you are interested in just bashing me and not in discussing the Bible, then go to a bashing of people site. I am here to discuss the Bible. That is why we are here. If you brought up verses and I missed them or I did not explain them properly to your satisification, I would be more than happy in doing so. But please be kind and respecful in doing so. It would go along way in proving to me that you are a real Christian if you love in our discussions here.
 
Sep 30, 2014
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No, that would be called adding to Scripture. The Scriptures never say Jesus thought about for a second or two. Jesus answered the devil with Scripture how man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word of God that proceeds out of his mouth. If Jesus considered the devil's offer for a sccond or two, then that would be wrong desire or lust (By giving into his temptation).
You have to process information, if I ask you if your hot or cold ? Your not just going to answer me, your going to process what I asked, your going to think then feel weather, then respond ... It takes time Jason
 
Jul 22, 2014
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You have to process information, if I ask you if your hot or cold ? Your not just going to answer me, your going to process what I asked, your going to think then feel weather, then respond ... It takes time Jason
No, we are not talking about the actual length of time of how our minds process information. That is not what we are talking about. She was implying that Jesus thought about the devil's offer (as if that was a possibility for him) within those two seconds. If that was not what she meant, then why did the rest of her post include the line of thought with Jesus falling into moments of weakness? See, I don't believe Jesus considered sin or evil as a possibility. I don't believe Jesus had moments of weakness. Jesus is God Almighty in the flesh. He is Holy and perfect and without flaw. He is the sinless Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the entire world. A Lamb was not to have any defects in it. If Jesus had any defects in Him (By having the capacity to do wrong), then He could not be our spotless Lamb.
 
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Jul 22, 2014
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See, what folks don't understand here is that I am defending the goodness of my Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. However, most everyone here seems to be against that idea by saying God creates evil and or Jesus had internal temptation (Which implies there was darkness within our Lord).

I mean, explain it to me. How can Jesus have internal temptation and not have darkness within Him?

How can God directly create evil and yet not be evil himself?

For if I create a robot that was specifically programed to kill, would I not be responsible for the actions of that robot?

Anyways, please use Scripture and or real world examples.
 
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No, we are not talking about the actual length of time of how our minds process information. That is not what we are talking about. She was implying that Jesus thought about the devil's offer (as if that was a possibility for him) within those two seconds. If that was not what she meant, then why did the rest of her post include the line of thought with Jesus falling into moments of weakness? See, I don't believe Jesus considered sin or evil as a possibility. I don't believe Jesus had moments of weakness. Jesus is God Almighty in the flesh. He is Holy and perfect and without flaw. He is the sinless Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the entire world. A Lamb was not to have any defects in it. If Jesus had any defects in Him (By having the capacity to do wrong), then He could not be our spotless Lamb.
I agree with you in the sense Jesus had no desire, in that sense, you couldn't tempt Him, and even the question is insulting.. The question was asked though, and a answer was given, that transpired, it happened, did he think hmmm, maybe, I'm with you are God is to strong for that, but that doesn't mean the question wasn't asked and comprehended ..
 
Jul 22, 2014
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I agree with you in the sense Jesus had no desire, in that sense, you couldn't tempt Him, and even the question is insulting.. The question was asked though, and a answer was given, that transpired, it happened, did he think hmmm, maybe, I'm with you are God is to strong for that, but that doesn't mean the question wasn't asked and comprehended ..
Then we are in agreement then, my friend. Jesus was not tempted internally but only externally; And I do believe time takes place for people to process information at times in conversations. I can see that as a possibility in that scenario. But the way she wrote her post, it sounded very clear to me that she was implying that Jesus could have considered in doing evil within those 2 seconds (However, Jesus simply then chose not to act on that evil, though). I don't believe Christ doing evil was ever under consideration or within His mind in any temptation that was thrown his way.
 
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May 3, 2013
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One of the reasons why Jesus was tempted was to show us how to resist temptation. When the devil tempted Jesus, our Lord responded with the Word of God. So if you are being tempted by something you feel the devil is attacking you in, then respond by quoting the Word of God over that temptation (Just as our Lord had done). Jesus also was tempted to let us know that He was in the same place of temptation that we were in so as to comfort us. It is not that Jesus was tempted internally like us by a sinful nature, but Jesus wanted to relate to us in the fact that He was a man who faced the same life problems that we had went thru. He is able to comfort us because He knows firsthand the temptations that came from demons like the devil (like in the wilderness) and other humans (Who were sinful).
Thanks, Mr Jason! Good point: He gave us examples on how to live...

Yet we know nothing about that "instrospective" thought you probably tried to defend of Jesus, because we had no authographed account of Jesus' dairy or personal notes, except those few we could infer on the Gospel.
 

Cassian

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Oct 12, 2013
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Yes, I am aware of the souls in Heaven in Revelation. I just brought it up recently (Without seeing your post yet here). Yes, our souls will be redeemed, but our sins are paid by his blood and sacrifice on the cross. His resurrection conquered the punishment of sin (Which is death). Our souls are redeemed by his sacrifice and resurrection. This is basic gospel. You are complicating it. Nowhere does the Bible say that Jesus had to redeem us with a human soul or human spirit. The sins were in his body. It doesn't say the sin was in his human spirit or human soul. Find a passage that says that.
It has nothing to do with sin. The primary problem of man is that he is dead, a mortal. We all are mortal by inheriting it from Adam. It is death, our mortal body that causes us to sin. Christ gave life to our nature. In order to do that He of necessity must have our nature, not some alien nature unlike us. When Christ arose from the grave, He was giving life to the world and to our natures. It is why we can speak of a resurrection of the dead, why we can speak of human beings being immortal. All parts of us will be immortal. This includes the soul. All of creation is immortal, which is why we can speak of a New earth and a New heaven.

Christ atoned for the sin of the world by performing the sacrifice that is needed for Christ in Heaven acting as our High Priest to forgive ours sins when we confess them. John 6:39 is another great summary of Christ's work in redeeming mankind's nature. He cannot lose any since all men have the very same nature, we are consubstantial with each other just as Christ was consubstantial with us. He was man in every single aspect that we are, but did not sin.



Jesus bore our sins within his body (1 Peter 2:24). Jesus received the cup of sin in the Garden Gethsmane. That is why he sweat great drops of blood and why he desired for the cup (that had all our sins within it) to pass if there was another way to save us. But immediately He knew there was no other way and He expressed how the Father's will should be done.

If sin was already present as Jesus' body, then we have to believe Jesus was carrying on our sins since his birth. Which is ridiculous to believe. See, born into this world without sin. He was born of the seed of the woman and not of the seed of man. Sin is passed down thru the male seed. It is medically proven that the blood of a baby soley comes from the father. Have you ever thought about why God visited the sins of the fathers to the third and fourth generations? Have you ever thought about why genealogies are reckoned primarily thru men and never men?
Here again you are being led by the false teaching of Original Sin. Man, let alone Jesus is NOT born with sin in him. We are not born with a sin nature.
This idea that the male passes the sin is straight out of Augustine again and is part of his theory of Original Sin. Augustine believed that sin was passed by the sex act. Amazing. Genealogies are through men because they have always been head of household, not a women. Do you even know what it means that God visited sins of the fathers to successive generations?
The father's seed carries the sin to his father or daughter thru the blood from his seed. [/quogte] sin cannot be carried. Sin cannot be transferred from one to another, It is an impossibility. As the theory also states that sin is imputed by God into man, quite preposterous.
You teach Augustinianism quite well but unfortunately it is not scriptural but wholly Gnostic.





Christ is the first fruits of the resurrection. He is the firstborn of many brethren. Jesus Christ is the Last or Second Adam that willl give rise to many that will be as innummerable as the stars. These bodies will not be corrupted with sin because Jesus body was never corrupted with sin.
All men will be raised and not one human being will be life out, John 6:39. I Cor 15:22 says the very same thing, as does I Cor 15:52-54,
It has NOTHING do with the fact Jesus did not have sin in His body. It has all to do with the fact that we still suffer the consequences of the condemnation of death to Adam, ONCE, so that this body, mortal body can be buried and thus sin cease in this body. That body well be resurrected because Christ arose from the dead with our nature and made it immortal.



Jesus only temporarily took on our sin in the Garden of Gethsamen and was wounded for our transgressions and died upon the cross to pay the penalty for our sin. Sin and death were conquered by his physical resurrection.
Why is it that your statements and interpretations of scripture do not reflect that correct statement.

Jesus then ascended to Heaven physically (After talking to Mary) and entered the Holy Temple up in Heaven by his blood so as to be our eternal Heavenly High Priest (And be our mediator between God the Father and man). Jesus then returned to be with his disciples for 40 days and gave them the Holy Spirit.
I'm not sure this was meant to be a sequence because if it was, it is incorrect. Christ is still in heaven seated on His throne (anthropomorphism) and is still our High Priest and is still our mediator.




Yes, these passage are talking about Jesus' resurrection and how that relates to the bodily resurrection. But the Last Adam (Jesuus) was the Lord from Heaven. That is what the Scriptures say. The last Adam was made (in the flesh) to be a quickening spirit so as to give life to us. Jesus said not only does the Father quicken, but Jesus said He quickens and brings life to people, too. It's how Jesus could forgive (cleanse) sin and raise the dead of his own body (Which he called the Temple).
This is a strange statement. Why not just keep it scripturally simple. Christ will raise every human being from the grave because He arose from the dead bearing our nature. I Cor 15:22. John 6:39, Rev 20:13. There are no exceptions.
 
T

TaylorTG

Guest
I think it's implied that Satan didn't realize that Christ was the Messiah at that point in time. He probably sensed that Christ was different from other humans, but if he knew that Christ was God, then he wouldn't have bothered to try and tempt him.

Anyhow, Christ had the original human nature that is not tainted with sin, hence why the temptations had no effect on him. Our human nature is not innately sinful, but it become sinful via Adam and Eve's rebellion. Christ's human nature is not tainted with sin because he's God, and God cannot rebel against himself.

Christ is 100% human. Being a human does not mean that one is innately sinful, for we were originally made sinless.
 
V

VioletReigns

Guest


No, that would be called adding to Scripture. The Scriptures never say Jesus thought about for a second or two. Jesus answered the devil with Scripture how man shall not live by bread alone but by every Word of God that proceeds out of his mouth. If Jesus considered the devil's offer for a sccond or two, then that would be wrong desire or lust (By giving into his temptation). Jesus said if a man looks upon a woman in lust (wrong desire) then they have committed adultery already in their heart. Doesn't matter if a man considers in looking at a woman in lust for a second or two. It is still wrong to consider in looking at a woman in lust. To contemplate in doing evil or not is not a Holy act but it is an evil one that leads one done the path to sin and corruption. So no. Jesus never thought about eating the bread. Jesus immediately rebuked the devil and had victory over him.



As I stated before within this thread, Jesus did not reject in going to the cross in this moment. Jesus did not have a moment of weakness. Jesus here was not outside the Father's will. Jesus was simply asking the Father if there was another way to save us, but then He instantly knew that there was no other way and He quickly agreed with the Father's plan to save us by going to the cross. This was not a refusal of going to the cross, but it was Jesus exploring with the Father (If there was some other way). If Jesus did not truly want to go to the cross, then he would have said to the Father that He just didn't want to do it despite the Father's will. So there was no refusal of receiving the cup. Jesus never refused the cup. He was merely asking if there was some other way (Just tto be sure). In fact, if Jesud did refuse in going to the cross, by his statement of "let this cup pass from me" then Jesus would be hypocritcal for rebuking Peter when Peter did not desire Jesus to go to the cross. Jesus went so far as to call Peter.... Satan for suggesting such a thing.



No, Jesus felt a separation from the Father, but Jesus KNEW that He was not separated, because He quoted the Psalm of David (i.e. Psalm 22) that let him knew that God the Father did not leave him nor forsake Him. See, Jesus does what He sees the Father doing. So if Jesus will never leave you nor forsake you, then you better believe the Father never left the Son (And Jesus knew this; - That's why He quoted the Psalm that says that).

Matthew 5:28 - But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman TO lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. (The word "to" here means with intent, to intentionally look at her for sexual gratification)
Jesus could look at a woman and be tempted to feel in his human flesh that she was physically attractive but he would not lust after her.

God’s Word even instructs us not to allow our feelings to define a person because the Lord knew that people would be looking at each other (tempted to make assumptions with our eyes); and He shows us how not to lust when we are tempted to stare at one another.
II Corinthians 5:16 - Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh. (NLT: So from now on we will not evaluate people from a carnal standpoint.)

Matthew 26:39 - And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.
Jesus is asking Father God if it’s possible that the suffering might be prevented. He’s tempted to think about His own will but He did not sin. Because He then said, “Yet, not My will but Your will be done.” Jesus was tempted to avoid the horrible suffering. But He did not sin.
Jesus is 100% God. And Jesus was 100% man. The flesh man on the cross absolutely felt that the Father separated from Him for He cannot lie! Why would Jesus yell, “Father, why have You forsaken Me?” Because He was tempted in His flesh to feel the emotion of abandonment and rejection. Yet He did not sin… why? Because IT WAS GOD HIMSELF on that Cross feeling the separation between Himself and YOU, Jason! And ME! And the WHOLE WORLD because of sin!

Almighty God Himself came down from His Throne and became like us and went through every temptation we go through and then was tortured and crucified brutally to atone for our sins that He might not be separated from His children. Yes, He was tempted, Jason. God said He was tempted and I believe every Word that proceeds out of the mouth of God.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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Matthew 5:28 - But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman TO lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. (The word "to" here means with intent, to intentionally look at her for sexual gratification)
Jesus could look at a woman and be tempted to feel in his human flesh that she was physically attractive but he would not lust after her.
Well, it is true that a man to look upon a woman in a sexual way or to want to be with them is lust, which would be adultery according to Jesus. As for physical attraction, this would not apply to Jesus but only to us. Jesus did not marry, have girl friends, and or seek after women. He was the Holy Son of God. He was God Almighty in the flesh who came forth to save us from our sins and not to party and enjoy the pleasures of this life. He did not have a created soul or human spirit. He was not like other men. Yes, Jesus had physical flesh, but it did not have a sin nature. And Christ was not like Adam in the sense that he could be truly tempted into doing something bad because He was impeccable in everything He did. For Jesus is God. He is not A god. Jesus is THE God. So no. Jesus never considered the devil's offer. Such a consideration would be like lusting for something bad or by desiring something that is wrong.

God’s Word even instructs us not to allow our feelings to define a person because the Lord knew that people would be looking at each other (tempted to make assumptions with our eyes); and He shows us how not to lust when we are tempted to stare at one another.
II Corinthians 5:16 - Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh. (NLT: So from now on we will not evaluate people from a carnal standpoint.)
Not sure what this has to do with anything. I agree that man cannot judge by outwards appearances and or look at a woman in lust. Having an attraction is not wrong for us, but for the Holy Son of God, it would not have been appropriate because God desires or prefers man to live for God (In all they do if they are able to resist the temptation in being married). In the case of Christ's temptation in the desert: Jesus would not lust or desire in eating of bread for one or two seconds. Such a thought would sort of be like the same sin of a man lusting or desiring a woman sexually. For both desires or wrongful thoughts in each of these scenarios would have been wrong.

Matthew 26:39 - And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.
Jesus is asking Father God if it’s possible that the suffering might be prevented. He’s tempted to think about His own will but He did not sin. Because He then said, “Yet, not My will but Your will be done.” Jesus was tempted to avoid the horrible suffering. But He did not sin.
No, Jesus was not tempted to avoid the horrible suffering of the cross. That never happened. Jesus was merely asking the Father if there was another way by his statement in saying "let this cup pass from me." Jesus did not say, "I refuse this cup and I will now let it pass from me." Jesus did not say that. Jesus was completely in the Father's will in His prayer with Him. Jesus was asking briefly if there was another way (Even though to His knowledge He knew there wasn't). Again, Jesus did not faulter in desiring in going to the cross; And He did not desire in avoiding the cross at any point in time, either. Jesus immediately said, "Let thy will be done." Plus, as I said before, Jesus also rebuked Peter for the fact that Peter did not want Jesus to go to the cross, too. So we know that Jesus could not have had the same thoughts that Peter had. Otherwise, Jesus would have been a hypocrite for judging someone in something that he himself did.

Jesus is 100% God. And Jesus was 100% man. The flesh man on the cross absolutely felt that the Father separated from Him for He cannot lie! Why would Jesus yell, “Father, why have You forsaken Me?” Because He was tempted in His flesh to feel the emotion of abandonment and rejection. Yet He did not sin… why? Because IT WAS GOD HIMSELF on that Cross feeling the separation between Himself and YOU, Jason! And ME! And the WHOLE WORLD because of sin!

Almighty God Himself came down from His Throne and became like us and went through every temptation we go through and then was tortured and crucified brutally to atone for our sins that He might not be separated from His children. Yes, He was tempted, Jason. God said He was tempted and I believe every Word that proceeds out of the mouth of God.
Then it was a sin. For if there was temptation involved in Jesus to do the wrong thing by saying these words on the cross, then it would have been a sin. Jesus did not do any wrong by saying these words. He did not faulter on the cross. He felt a separation.... Yes, in fact, he quoted Scripture to reflect that fact (i.e. Psalm 22), but that same piece of Scripture He quoted also let Christ know that God the Father was NOT separated from Him. That is one of the points of the Psalm.
 
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It has nothing to do with sin. The primary problem of man is that he is dead, a mortal. We all are mortal by inheriting it from Adam. It is death, our mortal body that causes us to sin. Christ gave life to our nature. In order to do that He of necessity must have our nature, not some alien nature unlike us. When Christ arose from the grave, He was giving life to the world and to our natures. It is why we can speak of a resurrection of the dead, why we can speak of human beings being immortal. All parts of us will be immortal. This includes the soul. All of creation is immortal, which is why we can speak of a New earth and a New heaven.

Christ atoned for the sin of the world by performing the sacrifice that is needed for Christ in Heaven acting as our High Priest to forgive ours sins when we confess them. John 6:39 is another great summary of Christ's work in redeeming mankind's nature. He cannot lose any since all men have the very same nature, we are consubstantial with each other just as Christ was consubstantial with us. He was man in every single aspect that we are, but did not sin.
No, it has everything to do with sin. The Scriptures say, Jesus Christ was manifested to destroy the works of the devil. The works of the devil is sin. The Scriptures say that Jesus is the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world. Many times Scripture talks about how our sins are purged by his blood. So no. You would be wrong. It is about man's sinful condition and how Jesus died to take away our sin. For Jesud died on the cross as the spotless Passover Lamb for our sins. His death would serve no purpose if He was not purging us of our sins on the cross. That's basic gospel, my friend.


Here again you are being led by the false teaching of Original Sin. Man, let alone Jesus is NOT born with sin in him. We are not born with a sin nature.
This idea that the male passes the sin is straight out of Augustine again and is part of his theory of Original Sin. Augustine believed that sin was passed by the sex act. Amazing. Genealogies are through men because they have always been head of household, not a women.. sin cannot be carried. Sin cannot be transferred from one to another, It is an impossibility. As the theory also states that sin is imputed by God into man, quite preposterous.
You teach Augustinianism quite well but unfortunately it is not scriptural but wholly Gnostic.

Are men at least born pure? What about the "tabula rasa"?

Psalm 51:5 - Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.
Genesis 8:21 - the Lord said in his heart, “I will never again curse the ground because of man, for the intention of man’s heart is evil from his youth."
Psalm 58:3 - The wicked are estranged from the womb; they go astray from birth, speaking lies.
John 3:6 - "That which is born of the flesh is flesh"
c.f. Proverbs 22:15
Job 5:7 - "Yet man is born unto trouble, as the sparks fly upward."

In fact, what stinks about thinking we are good (and not sinful) since our birth is that it tends to lean towards thinking that mankind is not all that bad. Hey, Rick, your okay. You are like a saint when you look at all those axe murders, drunks, rapists, and wife beaters out there.

Things are just rosey in my life. There is nothing wrong with me because since my birth I have been a pretty good kid. So then what need is there for a Savior? Can you honestly say that children do not sin and that they are sinless? What makes them born again children of God if they do wicked things and know they are doing wicked things? For obviously the child who gets caught with his hand in the cookie jar by her parents realizes that he did something wrong. Do you realize that some kids have killed before and done other horrible things? Are these born again spiritual kids of the Kingdom? What verses in Scripture makes you believe so? For when I look at the Scriptures, I see the exact opposite. That we are born into sin by Adam's transgression. It's like a stamp mark thru out the whole Bible. For a good tree cannot bring forth bad fruit and vise versa. For what reason is there to be born again if you believe you are not sinful? For the Scriptures say that that all have sinned and have come short of the glory of God.

For by one man's sin many were made sinners and by the obedience of one, many shall be made righteous.

Romans 5:19

For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

It's a contrast or parallel; Like holding two balls in your hand. Light and darkness. One man (Adam) caused death and the other man (Jesus) caused life. If for a moment you think that some can be righteous apart from Jesus Christ under the first Adam then that destroys the model for those who are made righteous under the Second Adam (Jesus Christ).


All men will be raised and not one human being will be life out, John 6:39. I Cor 15:22 says the very same thing, as does I Cor 15:52-54,
I agree on this point. There is a resurrection of life (Who will be with Jesus in the Eternal New Earth forever) and a resurrection of the damned (Who will perish in the Lake of Fire).

It has NOTHING do with the fact Jesus did not have sin in His body. It has all to do with the fact that we still suffer the consequences of the condemnation of death to Adam, ONCE, so that this body, mortal body can be buried and thus sin cease in this body. That body well be resurrected because Christ arose from the dead with our nature and made it immortal.
It has everything to do with sin. 1 John 1:7 says if we walk in the Light as He is in the Light then the blood Jesus cleanses us from all sin. If we confess our sin, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sin and to cleans us from all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9); And all unrighteousness is sin.

1 Peter 2:24 bore our sins within his body upon the cross. Hebrews 10:10 says we are sanctified thru the body of Jesus Christ once and for all. Revelation 1:5 says he washed of our sins in his own blood. Colossians 1:14 says we have redemption thru his blood.

Why is it that your statements and interpretations of scripture do not reflect that correct statement.
That statement doesn't really mean anything unless you can actually show forth the Scripture to prove your case.

I'm not sure this was meant to be a sequence because if it was, it is incorrect. Christ is still in heaven seated on His throne (anthropomorphism) and is still our High Priest and is still our mediator.
Jesus ascended after his resurrection after seeing Mary so as to be our High Priest. He then spent time with his diciples for 40 days and then ascended back up to Heaven (In a physical body) to sit down at the right hand of the Father.

This is a strange statement. Why not just keep it scripturally simple. Christ will raise every human being from the grave because He arose from the dead bearing our nature. I Cor 15:22. John 6:39, Rev 20:13. There are no exceptions.
So if Christ has a sin nature or the potential to sin while in His Earthly ministry, then why will there be no sin in the Eternal New Earth? Show me where in the Scriptures Jesus had either a sin nature, or the capacity to do wrong or evil.
 
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VioletReigns

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Luke 4:1, 2 - Then Jesus, full of the Holy Spirit, returned from the Jordan River. He was led by the Spirit in the wilderness, where he was tempted by the devil for forty days.

Your intellectual mind cannot accept this as fact. The Holy Spirit is the only One who can open our eyes to the Truth.
 

SoulWeaver

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Oct 25, 2014
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I think the thread title is a bit contradictory.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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Your intellectual mind cannot accept this as fact. The Holy Spirit is the only One who can open our eyes to the Truth.
I can say the same for you. Pray to the Lord and ask for His Spirit to reveal the truth to you on this matter and do a bunch of research and compare Scripture with Scripture. See, many times people misunderstood Jesus and or God's Word. They read things and yet they ignore the goodness of God (Christ) and morality (righteousness). They just believe things that don't make sense.

Luke 4:1, 2 - Then Jesus, full of the Holy Spirit, returned from the Jordan River. He was led by the Spirit in the wilderness, where he was tempted by the devil for forty days.
Read the passage. What does it say? It says tempted by whom? The devil. In other words, it is talking about external temptation that was put for by the devil and not internal temptation. The temptation was a one way street that was external. In other words, I can tempt you to eat chocolate covered ants, but my guess is that you probably wouldn't be tempted internally to eat them (Unless there was a lot of money or something involved).