It's unfortunate that you have confused giving with tithing. They are not the same thing prior to the Law, they are not the same thing under the law, and they are not the same thing for the church.
Further, you have confused the Christian's relationship to the Law with that of ancient Israel. Christians are not under the Law, period.
According to Scripture, the Christian is instructed to give as he has determined in his heart, generously, as he has prospered, regularly, to meet needs, to support the work of the gospel, and occasionally, sacrificially. None of that is "tithing". Tithes were never even payable on money. If you read your Bible, you would know this.
There isn't a single verse of Scripture that even hints that Christians are to give a specific percentage of their monetary income (which is what "tithing" is). There is no minimum, no standard, and no requirement. It is entirely voluntary.
In reality, I haven't confused anything.
Whether you like it or not, there is a correlation IN THE NEW TESTAMENT between "giving" and "tithing".
Not because I say so, but rather because the Apostle Paul plainly said so.
I Corinthians chapter 9
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13] Do ye not know that they which minister about holy things live of the things of the temple? and they which wait at the altar are partakers with the altar?
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14] Even so hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel.
Again, those who ministered about holy things while living of the things of the temple and/or those who waited at the altar while partaking of the altar WERE THE LEVITICAL PRIESTS WHO WERE RECEIVING TITHES UNDER THE LAW OF MOSES.
Here, Paul clearly (well, for those who don't shut their eyes to this New Testament truth) used the Old Testament tithe as his basis for saying "EVEN SO hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel".
To shut one's eyes to this obvious correlation isn't wise, but you're free to do so if you want to.
Whatever you decide, I'm confident that some others here will see this obvious correlation.
As far as my alleged confusion in regard to the Christian's relationship to the law is concerned (you really do like to falsely accuse people, don't you?), you are the one who apparently is either confused or just ignorant of the same.
For starters, even as we've just seen, the Apostle Paul, who wrote approximately half of the New Testament, clearly used a portion of the Old Testament law in relation to the Levitical priests and their receiving of tithes as his basis for his own New Testament doctrine concerning how the Lord has ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel.
In fact, the Apostle Paul REGULARLY cited Old Testament examples as the basis for his New Testament doctrine, and this most definitely includes his New Testament doctrine in relation to giving.
In a previous post here, I cited what Paul said twice in relation to giving.
Here it is, again:
I Corinthians chapter 9
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9] For it is written in the law of Moses, Thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen?
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10] Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope.
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11] If we have sown unto you spiritual things, is it a great thing if we shall reap your carnal things?
I Timothy chapter 5
17] Let the elders that rule well be counted worthy of double honour, especially they who labour in the word and doctrine.
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18] For the scripture saith, Thou shalt not muzzle the ox that treadeth out the corn. And, The labourer is worthy of his reward.
In both of these instances in THE NEW TESTAMENT, Paul cited the following passage of scripture from THE OLD TESTAMENT LAW as his basis for Christians providing for Christian ministers:
"Thou shalt not muzzle the ox when he treadeth out the corn. " (Deuteronomy 25:4)
And then, of course, there's this:
II Corinthians chapter 8
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10] And herein I give my advice: for this is expedient for you, who have begun before, not only to do, but also to be forward a year ago.
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11] Now therefore perform the doing of it; that as there was a readiness to will, so there may be a performance also out of that which ye have.
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12] For if there be first a willing mind, it is accepted according to that a man hath, and not according to that he hath not.
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13] For I mean not that other men be eased, and ye burdened:
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14] But by an equality, that now at this time your abundance may be a supply for their want, that their abundance also may be a supply for your want: that there may be equality:
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15] As it is written, He that had gathered much had nothing over; and he that had gathered little had no lack.
Where was it "written, He that had gathered much had nothing over; and he that had gathered little had no lack"?
Of course, it was "written" right here:
Exodus chapter 16
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14] And when the dew that lay was gone up, behold, upon the face of the wilderness there lay a small round thing, as small as the hoar frost on the ground.
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15] And when the children of Israel saw it, they said one to another, It is manna: for they wist not what it was. And Moses said unto them, This is the bread which the LORD hath given you to eat.
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16] This is the thing which the LORD hath commanded, Gather of it every man according to his eating, an omer for every man, according to the number of your persons; take ye every man for them which are in his tents.
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17] And the children of Israel did so, and gathered, some more, some less.
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18] And when they did mete it with an omer,
he that gathered much had nothing over, and he that gathered little had no lack; they gathered every man according to his eating.
Again, Paul clearly cited a passage of scripture from THE OLD TESTAMENT LAW as his basis for there being "an equality" amongst NEW TESTAMENT SAINTS.
With things such as these in mind, in reality, I'm not the least bit confused in regard to the Christian's relationship to the law, contrary to your latest false accusation.