Churches that Don't Allow Tongues and Prophecy in Meetings disobey Bible

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presidente

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May 29, 2013
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That is what I have been saying. Maybe I stated it incorrectly at some point but I think that the proselytes spoke in their native languages about the works of God, and the hearers understood because the language that the proselytes spoke in was the native language of the hearers as well.

Brian
The people in the Upper Room spoke in tongues. The passage doesn't say anything about the proselytes doing it. They were part of the audience being evangelized.
 

presidente

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Now keep in mind that the original translation of the verse states that no one understands a message in languages or tongues.

This rendering of the verse is clearly untrue because we can plainly see in Acts 2:11 that some people did understand the messages in tongues or languages. If this were not the case how could they understand and write in the verse that the people were speaking about the works of God.
You are dealing with two different contexts. One is before a crowd that hasn't heard the Gospel. The other is in the church.

You also have the same problem. Because in Acts, some in the crowed 'heard' them. They were speaking about the wonderful works of God and the listeners heard it. So whether you translate it as hear or understand, you have the same problem.


There is also this verse:

I Corinthians 14
[SUP]11 [/SUP]Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.

What's a barbarian? Someone who says 'bar bar bar' instead of speaking in Greek. That's where the word is believed to have originated. There are certain explanations you hear in church or from scholarly type people you know. But for this one about Barbarian, even my historical Linguistics professor who knew Greek and about 30 other languages, who was an expert and figuring out or knowing derivations from the theoretically reconstructed Proto-Indoeuropean language, said that about the word Barbarian, which gives it some credence in my mind. It related to his expertise.

So it becomes very clear that translating this verse using the phrase "no one understandeth", is scripturally invalid because the hearers in Acts 2:11 did understand that the speakers were talking about the "works" of God.
They also heard them speak in tongues. So you have the same problem. Acts 2 and I Corinthians 14 are talking about different situations.

That leaves the interpretation added on by the translators, or those who printed this version of the KJV translation, wherein they add the additional definition of "heareth" or pay attention.
You can't blame it on the KJV. Back before Early Modern English was ever spoken, interpreters who knew Greek believed it was talking about languages. John Chrysostom had a sermon and understood the passage to be talking about languages, not speaking mysteries in your own language that people can't understand.
 

presidente

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It's funny that zone and myself are posting on speaking in tongues and we kind of agree in this conversation with brmicke.
 

presidente

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I had a friend who was a missionary when I lived overseas. He passed away maybe 12 years ago or so. I remember him sharing with me about a crusade he held when he was doing ministry to Native Americans. He was getting read to have a meeting, and I believe it was in a tent and there were some youths trying to cause havoc by lighting fire crackers under the stage or by cutting the ropes. (I'm not sure which incident this was.) In the middle of the sermon, he said he felt a strong compulsion to speak in tongues, which he did. When the message was over, someone asked him how he knew their language so well. He had rebuked the youths who were preparing to cause mischief fluently in their language.
 

brmicke

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Sep 6, 2012
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That that is what it means. You even wrote that glossa was a word that meant languages.
What would you do if someone applied the same reasoning to other verses. "I don't believe adultery means adultery. It means don't commit adultery on the 18th. It's the 19th, so I'm not violating the verse." Or "Honor your father and mother really means honor your manager and assistant manager financially." Don't the words on the page have something to do with the meaning of the passage?
I know the word means language - so putting this together then could it not be possible then that "speaking of the works of God" could be considered a language with some deeper works being considered mysteries. A spiritual language that only believers were empowered to understand and speak about -

Mr 4:11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables:

Also - Don't you think that if some of the issues as you term it were "hammered out", at a certain time that they had occurred at an earlier time and were just then becoming widespread enough to require addressing by those considered to be authorities.

Brian
 

brmicke

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Sep 6, 2012
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You are dealing with two different contexts. One is before a crowd that hasn't heard the Gospel. The other is in the church.

You also have the same problem. Because in Acts, some in the crowed 'heard' them. They were speaking about the wonderful works of God and the listeners heard it. So whether you translate it as hear or understand, you have the same problem.
Mr 4:34 But without a parable spake he not unto them: and when they were alone, he expounded all things to his disciples.

Jesus said the understanding of the mysteries of God were for His Disciples not unbelievers.

What this implies is that the knowledge of the kingdom is given to a person only after a person decides to devote themselves to Christ or believe in Christ. Before that conversion point the ability to understand God is concealed from them. Jesus did not reveal things to unbelievers but to disciples. The unbelievers were spoken to in parables so they would not understand. Keep in mind here that almost all doctrinal or eschatological theories are based on parables.
 
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brmicke

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Sep 6, 2012
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I should say most popular or traditional eschatological theories (including the tongues, and so-called Rapture doctrines) are based on the expounding of parables or scriptural analogies and these parables are expressly for the purpose (as Jesus said) of concealing material from unbelievers.

Mt 13:35 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.

So does the church as a whole understand this?

Well if the don't understand this how will they understand any parable, Mr 10-13?

Mr 4:10 And when he was alone, they that were about him with the twelve asked of him the parable.
Mr 4:11 And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables:
Mr 4:12 That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.
Mr 4:13 And he said unto them, Know ye not this parable? and how then will ye know all parables?

Brian
 
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I should say most popular or traditional eschatological theories (including the tongues, and so-called Rapture doctrines) are based on the expounding of parables or scriptural analogies and these parables are expressly for the purpose (as Jesus said) of concealing material from unbelievers.

Mt 13:35 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.
I had to add a verse in Matthew and also the Old Testament scripture pertaining to this.

Matthew 13:34-35 (KJV)
[SUP]34 [/SUP]All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:
[SUP]35 [/SUP]That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying, I will open my mouth in parables; I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world.

Psalm 78:1-4 (KJV)
[SUP]1 [/SUP]Give ear, O my people, to my law: incline your ears to the words of my mouth.
[SUP]2 [/SUP]I will open my mouth in a parable: I will utter dark sayings of old:
[SUP]3 [/SUP]Which we have heard and known, and our fathers have told us.
[SUP]4 [/SUP]We will not hide them from their children, shewing to the generation to come the praises of the LORD, and his strength, and his wonderful works that he hath done.


Ezekiel 17:1-2 (KJV)
[SUP]1 [/SUP]And the word of the LORD came unto me, saying,
[SUP]2 [/SUP]Son of man, put forth a riddle, and speak a parable unto the house of Israel;
 

notuptome

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May 17, 2013
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When Peter said in Acts 2:17 that this event called Pentecost was to signify that God would pour out His Spirit on all flesh it stands to reason that there were people there who had not become Jews. If this were not the case How could Peter truthfully say that this event was an example of how God was going to start pouring out His Holy Spirit on "all flesh".

Ac 2:17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:

Also consider that even before Peter made His explanation of the event in Acts 2:17 some of those who heard them said that there were Galileans in the group, Acts 2:7.

Ac 2:7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
(KJV)

Respectfully - Brian
Peter is describing the prophecy of Joel and clarifying that only part of it is being fulfilled that day. The Spirit poured out on all flesh is the Holy Spirit and all flesh is all peoples. This is relevant to salvation. We are all baptized into Christ by one Spirit the Holy Spirit. Joel goes further to say that your young men and your young women this is referring specifically to Israel and not the world in general. Peter is preaching that God will save souls from among all men but only Israel will manifest the signs of visions and prophecy in Joel. We still await the signs in the heavens that Joel tell us must come. These again are for the benefit of Israel and will effect them before their Messiah returns at the close of the tribulation period.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

brmicke

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Sep 6, 2012
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At times I wonder whether President and Zone are thinking that Peter was in the group of the Jews instead of the group of Galileans.

As they were celebrating the feast, Peters group which included the Galileans was separate from the Jews. Peter and the Disciples and the Galileans were speaking of the works of God in their native languages (tongues) and the Jews heard this and came to see what was going on.

Peter, nor any real disciple would have celebrated the feast with Jews, who rejected and crucified Jesus Christ.

I was surprised this morning to find the following -
=================================
:"And Pilate, summoning the Jews, says to them: You know that my wife is a worshipper of God, and prefers to adhere to the Jewish religion along with you. ... Annas and Caiaphas say to Pilate: All the multitude of us cry out that he was born of fornication, and are not believed; these are proselytes, and his disciples. And Pilate, calling Annas and Caiaphas, says to them: What are proselytes? They say to him: They are by birth children of the Greeks, and have now become Jews" - Roberts Translation Gospel of Nicodemus: Acts of Pilate (ANF text)
~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
In the citation we can also see that Pilate's wife is a gate proselyte. Though drawn to the Jewish religion, she could never become a Jewess as long as she was married to a gentile uninterested in adhering to Judaism.

=========================================

Here is the link -- http://www.spiritus-temporis.com/proselyte/history-of-the-proselyte-in-israel.html
 

presidente

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Joel goes further to say that your young men and your young women this is referring specifically to Israel and not the world in general. Peter is preaching that God will save souls from among all men but only Israel will manifest the signs of visions and prophecy in Joel.
Uh-oh. Are you saying that Peter is wrong? In Acts 10, Gentiles speak in tongues. In I Corinthians 12, they prophesy. Peter said nothing about Gentiles not manifesting signs.
 

presidente

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brmicke

Acts 2:6 says,
"Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language."

It is plainly stated. You are not going to convince anyone of your viewpoint because they would have to believe that what the Bible means has very little to do with the words on the page. If this verse is a code for something else, why would it mean what you say, and not 'Don't eat chocolate ice cream during a full moon.'

God has communicated to people through parables, riddles, dark sayings, and teaching that people do not understand. He has also used people to speak to other people in languages they do not understand. That fits with the general pattern you are talking about. But to say that speaking in other languages doesn't mean speaking in other languages just doesn't make sense.
 

presidente

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I know the word means language - so putting this together then could it not be possible then that "speaking of the works of God" could be considered a language with some deeper works being considered mysteries. A spiritual language that only believers were empowered to understand and speak about -
This part sounds like you could be makingan argument for ecstatic utterances.
 

zone

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Jun 13, 2010
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I wasn't quick enough to include this in my previous reply -

A gate proselyte[SUP][5][/SUP] is a "resident alien" who lives in the Land of Israel and follows some of the customs. They are not required to be circumcised nor to comply with the whole of the Torah. They are bound only to conform to the seven precepts of Noah, the Noahide Laws: do not worship idols, do not blaspheme God's name, do not murder, do not commit immoral sexual acts, do not steal, do not tear the limb from a living animal, and do not fail to establish courts of justice to be assured of a place in the world to come.

Proselyte - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Respectfully - Brian
Noahide Laws

it's everywhere.......


 

zone

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2010
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presidente & brmicke:
could you fellas say which you believe:

1) tongues = real languages
2) unknowable sounds/utterances

k thx
 
R

Richie_2uk

Guest
God encourage us all to use the God Given Gifts. and Tongues and true " I say TRUE " prophesy are encouraged in our church. Why wouldn't anyone would not want to use a God given gift? if there is limitations in a church, you need to think about are you going to the right place? If I knew a church that limits the use of God's power and gifts. I would be out of the church in no time.

I'm not saying I need to be in a perfect church, as we all know there is none. and if they say there church is a perfect church? then I'm Kermit the Frog writing this thread. But God has given those gifts, use them to his glory. and to show the world that God is real.
 

brmicke

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Sep 6, 2012
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But to say that speaking in other languages doesn't mean speaking in other languages just doesn't make sense.
I think folks that after all of this the only reason you don't understand what I am saying is that you don't want to.

I feel I have been very clear so why not just say you understand what I am saying but you simply disagree.
 
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brmicke

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Sep 6, 2012
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Just in case you don't yet follow my line of thought, Here it is in one long sentence.

Speaking in tongues is the gift of God whereby a person is enabled to discuss in His natural language, the "works or mysteries" of God, and Christians who speak the same natural language can understand those spiritual things, but unbelievers are specifically intended to not understand the spiritual truths they are speaking because they are spiritually discerned.

If you disagree that is fine with me. If you don't disagree then I am happy to hear it.

Brian
 
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LvsJesus

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Apr 28, 2011
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I believe tongues are not only another language but is also our spirit praying to God and also for evidence of having the Holy Ghost (Spirit).

Act 2
1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.
2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.
3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.
4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?
13 Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine.
14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words:
15 For these are not drunken, as ye suppose, seeing it is but the third hour of the day.
16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;

1Corinthians 14
2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.

1Corinthians 14
4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.

1Corinthians 14
9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.

1Corinthians 14
13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.
14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.

1Corinthians 14
19 Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue.

1Corinthians 14
27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.


This is talking about an unknown tongue. The unknown tongue is a supernatural language that no one understands but it is that individual's spirit praying to God. However, the fact that this tongue is unknown doesn't take away from the fact that it is also important even though it is less significant than prophesying. It is also stated that one is to pray that they could interpret. The reason why is so that there would be edification in the church.
Apparently there was a lot of tongue talking being used very openly and much emphasis was being put on this particular situation seeing that Paul was admonishing the church on this subject. Even though the word "unknown" was in italics, the fact still was that this tongue was unknow because it by itself was uninterpreted. Paul taught in verse 27 that this tongue should be interpreted. The reason for this was because apparently things were out of order and there needed to be order. If people are assembling together then there is a need for prophesying and the teaching and preaching of God's Word. So Paul told them that there was a need for the unknown tongue to be interpreted so that all may profit from it and so that there would be order.
So I believe that this tongue is words that is not to be understood at first at least. This is why in Acts 2 they said that the men were full of wine - because they couldn't understand what they were saying. Peter then responded by quoting the prophet Joel saying these were the things that were to take place in the last days.


1Corinthians 12
10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:

1Corinthians 12
30 Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?

I believe from studying the Bible there are two different types of tongues and possibly three when the uninterpreted tongue is able to be interpreted through the power of God as a prphetical utterance. These are from the Lord not learned but supernatural:

1. Tongues uttered in a different nationality spoken through the divine influence of the Holy Ghost through an individual that had no prior learning of the particular language (Acts 2).

2. Tongues spoken supernaturally that no one understands but God (1 Corinthians 14:2;). This is the uninterpreted tongue. I believe this tongue was intended to be between the individual and God because it says "no man understands him." However, once again, God can allow a tongue to be interpreted. It all depends upon the grace given of God.

3. The tongues that are interpreted into prophesy (I believe these tongues are specifically designed purposely to be interpreted as prophesy). For an example, if you were praying in tongues at your home God may not have a message for you or anyone else for that matter. This would be mostly for an open congregation for the benefit of the church.


1Corinthians 14
18 I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
19 Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue.

Here it is very plain even though tongues are not edifying to others except through interpretation, that Paul said he thanked God that he spoke with tongues more than all of them. In verse 19 he also made clear that tongues were not edifying to people who were not believer's.
Even as the 120 were gathered together at the beginning of the birth of the church and at other times in the New Testiment, God is very able all by Himself to fill each believer with the Holy Ghost who have first repented of their sins. Secondly, either before or after receiving the Holy Ghost, they are to be baptized in the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ as was commanded and carried out in God's Word.

1Corinthians 14
21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord (This is quoted from Isaiah 28:11-12).
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

I believe what is quoted in verse 22 is talking about tongues being a sign for the one who first receives the gift of the Holy Ghost. Because the subject at hand is addressing problems with tongues being used in the church openly in the congregation. That is why he possibly skipped over the part about it being a "refreshing," because most probably they were over using tongues in particular. Prophesying serves for those that believe. Kept within context, this is talking about the believer prophesying and as I stated earlier, tongues are for the new believer's.

When a person had received the infilling of the Holy Ghost, many times the "sign" was speaking in tongues.

Acts 2
4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

Acts 10
46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,
47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

Act 19
6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

In Acts Chapter 8 they most probably spoke in tongues seeing that Peter and John came down to pray for them to receive the Holy Ghost and afterwards this sign was so amazing that Simon the sorcerer wanted to buy this gift of laying on of hands from the two apostel's. If they would have received it after only believing that would have proved to be suficient. However, it wasn't seeing that they came down to lay hands on them. It was apparent that there was need of a "sign." This sign many times was very needful so that everyone would know that had indeed received the gift of the Holy Ghost. So there you have it. Biblically this was used for a sign, and Paul himself also saying he spoke in tongues most certainly as well had the same experience after his own personal conversion.

God bless