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[TD="class: alt1, bgcolor: #F6F6F6"]Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?
According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?
Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.
#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).
#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.
Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?
I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.
However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:
"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."
At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.
"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)
Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?
...
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[TD="class: alt1, bgcolor: #F6F6F6"]Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?
According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?
Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.
#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).
#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.
Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?
I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.
However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:
"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."
At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.
"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)
Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?
...
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When will you finish writing Jason´s bible?