To be in eternal torment would require eternal life wouldn't it?
Not the way the Bible uses "eternal life".
1 John 5:20 - And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ.
This is the true God, and eternal life.
God IS eternal life. And He gives His life to those who believe in His Son. No one else.
So, to answer your comment, instead of "eternal life", which is God's life, unbelievers will have unending life, or never ending life.
or would it be eternal sleep?
Is there a verse that speaks of eternal sleep?
or eternal death but then death wouldn't be death either, would it? I am trying to follow your logic but something has to give somewhere. What you wrote above is what made me ask this question
Hopefully, my answers above will clarify. If not, fire away.
"If all dead people sleep, then Jesus' parable would be INSANE and totally rejected as fantasy".
Do you agree we won't remember the lake of fire?
If annihilation is true, then there won't even be a "we" or a "you" or a "me", as unbelievers.
It seems so easy and simple. If one ceases to exist, there is nothing to feel, suffer, etc. That cannot be a punishment. In fact, that would be a RELIEF of suffering.
Don't you know that people in severe pain beg to be killed, thinking that would end their suffering? Seems to be a universal idea.
If so, what is it's purpose? Someone couldn't make themselves love God so they must pay?
Sorry, I don't understand your question. Purpose of what? the LoF? That was initially created for the devil and his angels. Matt 25:41. However, with the creation of us mortals, those who reject or simply don't receive the free gift of eternal life aren't qualified to live with God, who IS eternal life, and therefore, the only other location in eternity will be the LoF.
No one "pays for not loving God". And no one "pays" anything anyway. Since Jesus Christ went to the cross for everyone, and PAID the debt of everyone, there is no debt remaining.
People go to the LoF for only 1 reason. They don't have eternal life. So they must reside where the devil will reside forever and ever.
WHICH brings me to another question. God created vessels for destruction. Do those go into the lake of fire to be tortured forever when they served the very purpose they were created for?
Sorry, big error here. Rom 9:22 does NOT say "created". There are translations that error by translating the word that way. Some translations use the same word in v.22 and v.23. But they are different words.
v.22 "created/prepared" is 'katartizo':
2675 katartízō (from
2596 /katá, "according to,
down," intensifying
artizō, "to adjust," which is derived from
739 /ártios, "properly adjusted") – properly,
exactly fit (adjust) to be in good
working order, i.e. adjusted
exactly "down" to fully function.
This word is found in the gospels describing some disciples "mending their nets".
So the word means to "mend", or "fix" or "adjust". My lexicon has "adjust to fit". Kinda like "retrofit".
v.23 - "prepared in advance" is:
proetoimazó:
to prepare before
Original Word: προετοιμάζω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: proetoimazó
Phonetic Spelling: (pro-et-oy-mad'-zo)
Definition: to prepare before
Usage: I prepare or appoint beforehand, predestine.
So, no one is prepared for destruction. No one is created for destruction. No one is appointed for destruction.
Everyone who is destroyed has to be adjusted to fit.
As you can see, I am really thinking about what you believe and I am really trying to understand it but most of all I am trying to see how it fits in the truth of the words of God and where the 'disconnect' is.
I appreciate this, as most posters seem to be stuck on their own ideas and don't even give opposing views a glance.
I am starting to believe it is our lack of understanding in maybe our 'idea' of 'day and night' or forever and ever or age of ages or what torment is.
Well, clearly there is a difference in our understanding of what words mean. Can you accept that Jesus' account of Lazarus and the rich man is an account of the afterlife rather than a parable? That would be a starting point.
Since such a parable violates the reality of soul sleep, one has to ask themselves WHY Jesus would make up such a parable, that has no human life counterpart. Please do that.
But you got me thinking. I have read over that one verse quite a few times now and it is just out of line with others that so far I can't reckon them together.
Which verse again? I would begin with Luke 16. You have to figure out WHY Jesus would make up a parable that has no reality counterpart. So no one could relate to it. Yet, EVERY other parable DOES have a reality counterpart and everyone can relate to them.
I think I just might have to lay them all out side by side and see. Thank you for continuing to answer.
My pleasure. Thanks for keep asking.
I know it is hard when we see something so clearly we don't understand how anyone can see it different from us. Sometimes it is so easy to see because there is nary a scripture to point to BUT here we DO have that one scripture that is straightforward, at least it seems like it to me at this time.
Right. For me, the "straightforward" Scripture is the account of Abraham's bosom with Lazarus and the rich man. I start there, and progress to other Scriptures.
I also understand the Bible's use of "dead" to be a euphemism for physical death in certain passages. In other passages, it is used of Abraham when he was "past age" or impotent. iow, sexually dead. Doesn't mean his sex organ was sleeping, it just wasn't working.