Okay. Let's address this first: "I cannot agree with the idea of His blood being made "effectual" through anything man can or cannot do."
Now in order to address it we must go to the very words of Christ Himself as recorded in John 3:14-18, which is a critical passage, and which is connected the truth that "without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins":
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:
15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Therefore we need to ask ourselves some key questions regarding these verses:
v 14 -- Was the Brazen Serpent in the wilderness for ALL who had been bitten by those venomous serpents? AND THE ANSWER IS "YES".
v 14 -- Did Christ make that Brazen Serpent a type of Himself on the cross, where He was literally made SIN for us, so that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him? ABSOLUTELY
v 14 -- Is the venom of sin and death present in every human being because of Adam? ABSOLUTELY
v 14 -- When the Son of Man was lifted up, did Christ shed His blood on the cross as the Lamb of God "which taketh away the sin of the world" (meaning all mankind)? ABSOLUTELY [Note: Calvin had to concur that "the world" means all humanity in John 1:29]
v. 15 -- Does this verse imply that the finished work on the cross is for ALL humanity, and that the gift of eternal life is offered to all? ABSOLUTELY
v 16 -- In this verse does the word "world" means all humanity -- the human race? ABSOLUTELY. [Even John Calvin could not escape that conclusion in his commentary on this verse (but failed to apply it in his theology)].
v 16 -- Does "whosoever believeth in Him" mean anyone and everyone, therefore it means that Christ shed His blood for all mankind? ABSOLUTELY
v 16 -- Is the free gift of eternal life offered to anyone who believes on the Lord Jesus Christ? ABSOLUTELY
v 17 -- Does this verse plainly mean that God will have ALL men to be saved and to come unto the knowledge of the truth? ABSOLUTELY
v 18 -- Does this verse teach that one of the conditions for salvation is faith in the Lord Jesus Christ? ABSOLUTELY
v 18 -- Does this verse mean that the sinner must put his absolute faith and trust in Christ and His finished work in order to be saved? ABSOLUTELY
v 18 -- Did Christ thereforeteach that a man must do something in response to the Gospel message? ABSOLUTELY
So, as you can see, this passage fully addresses you objections and also refutes your position on Limited Atonement. And since these are the words of Christ, you must now repudiate your theology (which is Calvin's theology).
No, it really refutes nothing, as to my position.
With all due respect, You can't just take 5 verses of Scripture and give to them your personal interpretation and call this DOCTRINE or build a Salvation argument upon them and them alone. But, okay, let's take a run at these points:
v 14 -- Was the Brazen Serpent in the wilderness for ALL who had been bitten by those venomous serpents? AND THE ANSWER IS "YES".
You left out the important part, that the person had to look upon the Brazen Serpent. Therefore, had
to see it as a saving symbol or type.
(Num 21:9) And Moses made a serpent of brass, and set it upon the standard: and it came to pass, that if a serpent had bitten any man,
when he looked unto the serpent of brass, he lived. (This represents by looking, that the individual has faith but does not answer where the origin of this faith came from.)
v 14 -- Did Christ make that Brazen Serpent a type of Himself on the cross, where He was literally made SIN for us, so that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him?
ABSOLUTELY (AGREE)
v 14 -- Is the venom of sin and death present in every human being because of Adam?
ABSOLUTELY (AGREE)
v 14 -- When the Son of Man was lifted up, did Christ shed His blood on the cross as the Lamb of God "which taketh away the sin of the world" (meaning all mankind)?
ABSOLUTELY [Note: Calvin had to concur that "the world" means all humanity in John 1:29]
Taketh away the sin of the world. Is not in verse 14, we should not move Scripture out of place, when giving an interpretation. By the way, really don't care much what Calvin said. Calvin, like many men, wrote about doctrinal things they found in Scripture. Calvin wrote about his views just as you and I are. Calvin discovered things he believed to be true.... he did not write the Bible. It is not "Thus says Calvin." it is thus saith the Lord. Only the reformed movement really clings that tightly to Calvin. Not me.
v. 15 -- Does this verse imply that the finished work on the cross is for ALL humanity, and that the gift of eternal life is offered to all? ABSOLUTELY No, it simply says, that everyone believing in Him. It does take BELIEVING in Jesus Christ to be saved. But who lifts us, that are dead in trespasses and sins, so that we may overcome spiritual depravity and be able to come to Christ? John 6, repeatedly, records our lord saying that no man can (is able) to come.
v 16. Does not teach all that you are cramming into it. At this time, as much as I know this will cause many to disagree, I would like to offer a straight translation from the greek text of this verse, into english: " For in this way, God loved the world, in that HE gave the only begotten Son, in order that everyone believing because of Him, may not perish but may be having eternal life.
Let's break this down, shall we. For
in this way, (most translations leave out the greek word "γαρ" in english "in this way") God
loved ( ηγαπησεν and aorist active indicative verb, meaning, loved in the past) the
world (κοσμον, which can mean: world, universe, creation, a select group or specified collection), in that HE
gave ( εδωκεν aorist active indicative verb, gave in the past) the only begotten Son, in order that everyone
believing ( πιστευων, present active participle, believing right now with continued results)
because of ( εις, accusative of cause) Him,
may not perish ( αποληται, aorist middle subjunctive verb, aorist=in past time, middle voice= self is creating the action, subjunctive=mood of possibility) but
may be having ( εχη, present active subjunctive verb, a word meaning to have, to hold or be in possession of, present=now with continued results, active=this person is actively in possession, subjunctive=mood of possibility. ) eternal life.
Some may not like me providing a translation, but I challenge any greek student to refute it. So what does all this show us.
Nothing really different in the two translations but allows me to highlight verb tenses.
1) As we can see, the way God so loved the world was to give His only begotten Son.
2) That this love for the world originated in the past. (aorist tense), from eternity, before the world began.
3.) That world here, could mean the whole of creation but probably means world, whether it is to be restricted in it's use is debatable.
4.) that the ones believing are active themselves in believing at the moment the person is peaking and the results may continue on.
5.) Everyone who is believing, is believing because of His finished work on behalf of the chosen of God.
6.) The person was in a state of perishing but now,
7.) Is possibly in the state of possessing eternal life.
I am going to skip to verse 18:
18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. Don't you find it strange in this verse, that the Lord said, "....is condemned already, because he has not believed..." Don't you find it curious, that the statement, "is condemned already", sounds so much like the discussion of the potter and the clay in Rom. 9. Also, why does "because he has not believed in the name...." sound so determinate? This person is not yet dead. Could not this person, according to what you believe, change his mind later on?
I am going to ignore the rest because you ignored the verses that I put before you. Let us not pick and chose verses, let's go forth and see what it takes to harmonize all of Scripture.