Favourite Bible Translations

[KJV1611]

“Ok, explain how "original languages" prove an error in any bible."

I'll give a few quick examples -

"If you have HEARING, these verses are telling us EXACTLY how God preserved his word from the day of Pentecost forward. The wonderful works of God is the bible.

Act 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.”

This passage you quote is a perfect example – in “as the Spirit gave them utterance”, what is typically translated as the phrase “to give utterance”, in Greek is the word “apophtheggomai” – “to give utterance” is actually not the most correct translation.

The word means "to give bold, authoritative, inspired speech to”. It refers not to the content of the speech (i.e., the language), but rather to the manner of speaking. In each instance where this word occurs in scripture, the person's speech is bold, authoritative, and inspired and it is always, by the way, in the speaker’s native language.

I won’t go into details as it’s too off-topic, but suffice to say that the Holy Spirit did not give the language of what was said, but rather the manner in which it was said (i.e. bold, authoritative and inspired).

Another minor translation error is “unicorn” – People often joke that the KJV has a lot of unicorns in it. The word should have been more properly translated as rhinoceros, wild ox, oryx, or aurochs.

I’ve already addressed the political inclusion of “witch” in Exodus as opposed to “poisoner”.

I don't know if I'd go so far as to call them purposeful errors (well, except for the last one), but they are incorrect translations of what we would term an original language text.

These have been copied over to subsequent English versions and are no longer exclusive to the KJV.

So you believe that these guys who were speaking already knew how to speak all these languages?

Act 2:8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
Act 2:9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
Act 2:10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
Act 2:11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God

 

[Lucy-Pevensie]

The NIV, ESV dosent preserve the verses below in Gods word, they are preserved in the KJV

It's not a matter of let's hold hands and skip down the yellow brick road to the Kingdom of OZ

One translation is preservation, the other isnt

You cant have a Dollar bill without serial numbers, it's a (Counterfeit) of the true currency?

Matthew 17:21
Matthew 18:11
Acts 8:37
Roman's 16:24

I fully understand my english KJV that is supported by the Greek Byzantine Textual Family, including the text the church received and used (Textus Receptus)

I dont use the new translations, supported by the 1%< minority of manuscript evidence, in the Alexandrian Text Type

It's that simple, its not archaic words as you claim, its a completely foreign Greek Text, that the Church has never used or received.

Its that simple Byzantine v Alexandrian

And you are telling lies.
Those verses are included in plain English Bibles.

This line is omitted from the KJV though.
"The Lord is faithful in His words,
And holy in all His works"

You MUST use the same standard to judge the KJV as you use for the Bibles you propagandise against.
If you don't you are a hypocrite.

The line is omitted and there is a reason for it. The KJV does not explain the reason but more thorough translations do.

 

[true_believer]

And what do you think? Can you give us one example, your favorite... thanks

This is a common example of how KJV onlyists can misunderstand the evolution of the English language.

Example #35: 2 Timothy 2:15

KJV: Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

NKJV: Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

I was really hoping this one would come up, as it shows once again that KJV Onlyists generally have no idea what their own Bible is saying to them because they do not understand 1611 English. One of the meanings of the word "study" is to "take pains to achieve"; to be diligent. It is an excellent example of how the KJV has imprecise renderings that could be understood improperly, especially to those with poor levels of literacy, like those unfortunates who send me e-mails saying, "Only the KJV 1611 tells you to study your Bible!!!!!" The Greek word spoudazo literally means "to use speed" but figuratively means "to make effort." It simply means to be diligent.

 

[KJV1611]

I would also add that the unicorn, whether real or mythical, represents one horn. That one horn is Christ.

Luk 1:68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,
Luk 1:69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David;

 

[Truth7t7]

And you are telling lies.
Those verses are included in plain English Bibles.

This line is omitted from the KJV though.
"The Lord is faithful in His words,
And holy in all His works"

You MUST use the same standard to judge the KJV as you use for the Bibles you propagandise against.
If you don't you are a hypocrite.

The line is omitted and there is a reason for it. The KJV does not explain the reason but more thorough translations do.

Once Again, The Argument Is Byzantine Vs Alexandrian

The Church used and received the Byzantine textual family, the Church didnt use the 1%< Minority Alexandrian Text that supports new translations, it's that simple

Westcott & Hort in 1881 didnt produce Gods truth in their Greek Text, that is supported by this Alexandrian Text Type

The Nestle-Aland didnt produce Gods truth in their Greek Text, using the Alexandrian Text Type

It's that simple, Byzantine Vs Alexandrian

Below, Verses Missing In The Alexandian Greek Text Type?

Matthew 17:21
Matthew 18:11
Acts 8:37
Roman's 16:24

 

[Truth7t7]

This is a common example of how KJV onlyists can misunderstand the evolution of the English language.

Example #35: 2 Timothy 2:15

KJV: Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

NKJV: Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

I was really hoping this one would come up, as it shows once again that KJV Onlyists generally have no idea what their own Bible is saying to them because they do not understand 1611 English. One of the meanings of the word "study" is to "take pains to achieve"; to be diligent. It is an excellent example of how the KJV has imprecise renderings that could be understood improperly, especially to those with poor levels of literacy, like those unfortunates who send me e-mails saying, "Only the KJV 1611 tells you to study your Bible!!!!!" The Greek word spoudazo literally means "to use speed" but figuratively means "to make effort." It simply means to be diligent.

Your claim is nothing more than opinion, the KJV is precise, and easily understood in 2 Timothy 2:15

 

[fredoheaven]

This is a common example of how KJV onlyists can misunderstand the evolution of the English language.

Example #35: 2 Timothy 2:15

KJV: Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

NKJV: Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

I was really hoping this one would come up, as it shows once again that KJV Onlyists generally have no idea what their own Bible is saying to them because they do not understand 1611 English. One of the meanings of the word "study" is to "take pains to achieve"; to be diligent. It is an excellent example of how the KJV has imprecise renderings that could be understood improperly, especially to those with poor levels of literacy, like those unfortunates who send me e-mails saying, "Only the KJV 1611 tells you to study your Bible!!!!!" The Greek word spoudazo literally means "to use speed" but figuratively means "to make effort." It simply means to be diligent.

Where did you get that definition? Thanks

 

[KJV1611]

This is a common example of how KJV onlyists can misunderstand the evolution of the English language.

Example #35: 2 Timothy 2:15

KJV: Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

NKJV: Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

I was really hoping this one would come up, as it shows once again that KJV Onlyists generally have no idea what their own Bible is saying to them because they do not understand 1611 English. One of the meanings of the word "study" is to "take pains to achieve"; to be diligent. It is an excellent example of how the KJV has imprecise renderings that could be understood improperly, especially to those with poor levels of literacy, like those unfortunates who send me e-mails saying, "Only the KJV 1611 tells you to study your Bible!!!!!" The Greek word spoudazo literally means "to use speed" but figuratively means "to make effort." It simply means to be diligent.

What diligent thing should we be doing?

 

[true_believer]

Your claim is nothing more than opinion, the KJV is precise, and easily understood in 2 Timothy 2:15

Opinion?!?! *facepalm*
There are plenty of words in the English language that are no longer used or have new definitions over the past four hundred years. I grew up in the 80s and anyone else did can see how word meanings have rapidly changed and other words have been added to the English language in just 40 years.

 

[fredoheaven]

And you are telling lies.
Those verses are included in plain English Bibles.

This line is omitted from the KJV though.
"The Lord is faithful in His words,
And holy in all His works"

You MUST use the same standard to judge the KJV as you use for the Bibles you propagandise against.
If you don't you are a hypocrite.

The line is omitted and there is a reason for it. The KJV does not explain the reason but more thorough translations do.

In what particular chapter or verse you quoted. Thanks

 

[true_believer]

What diligent thing should we be doing?

Did you read the entire Bible verse?

 

[KJV1611]

Opinion?!?! *facepalm*
There are plenty of words in the English language that are no longer used or have new definitions over the past four hundred years. I grew up in the 80s and anyone else did can see how word meanings have rapidly changed and other words have been added to the English language in just 40 years.

Are you expecting to get more meaning from a 2000 year old language?

 

[KJV1611]

Did you read the entire Bible verse?

I did read it that's why am asking you what we're supposed to do.

 

[Truth7t7]

Opinion?!?! *facepalm*
There are plenty of words in the English language that are no longer used or have new definitions over the past four hundred years. I grew up in the 80s and anyone else did can see how word meanings have rapidly changed and other words have been added to the English language in just 40 years.

Gods word dosent change with political correctness, Ebonics, or the rapper out on the street corner

Gay still means Happy in my book

 

[Scribe]

You'v

And you are telling lies.
Those verses are included in plain English Bibles.

This line is omitted from the KJV though.
"The Lord is faithful in His words,
And holy in all His works"

You MUST use the same standard to judge the KJV as you use for the Bibles you propagandise against.
If you don't you are a hypocrite.

The line is omitted and there is a reason for it. The KJV does not explain the reason but more thorough translations do.

Good point. I think it is lost on the KJV only crowd, but I understood what you are saying. Very good point.

 

[KJV1611]

Studying the word is the ONLY way to rightly divide the word of truth. Note that it says the WORD OF TRUTH and it doesn't say James Strong's opinion of what a Greek word means.

 

[fredoheaven]

Opinion?!?! *facepalm*
There are plenty of words in the English language that are no longer used or have new definitions over the past four hundred years. I grew up in the 80s and anyone else did can see how word meanings have rapidly changed and other words have been added to the English language in just 40 years.

If the scholars nowadays are saying we need to go the old Greek and like what you did but why not in English? If English is rapidly changing then Greek is what? yet you are appealing to them and the additions does not affect KJV English. They are there to study it.

 

[true_believer]

I did read it that's why am asking you what we're supposed to do.

It's self explanatory

If the scholars nowadays are saying we need to go the old Greek and like what you did but why not in English? If English is rapidly changing then Greek is what? yet you are appealing to them and the additions does not affect KJV English. They are there to study it.

Why use a translation that requires a translation?

 

[Scribe]

Gods word dosent change with political correctness, Ebonics, or the rapper out on the street corner

Gay still means Happy in my book

But what about quit? Quit ye like men does not mean quit acting like a man, it means Act like a man. How about prevent? We will not prevent them that are asleep, (means go before) There are many examples. You will find yourself translating KJV to people you are talking to. Why? Because the English words have changed meaning. We must retranslate the Greek word to the current English word of that same meaning of the Greek word.

 

[KJV1611]

You'v

Good point. I think it is lost on the KJV only crowd, but I understood what you are saying. Very good point.

I'm not familiar with this supposed error, could you elaborate please.