First, thank you for taking the effort to answer my question. Kudos for that.
Question 1:
Your definition of LOVE ... Take pleasure in is a definition of God's Love:
Does God "take pleasure in" the wicked as much as he does those IN CHRIST ???? (note: this was @EleventhHour definition and therefore question for her)
If your answer is NO. Would that not be good reason to say "God does not love everyone the same amount"?
My Response: You avoided the crux of the question. Does God love (take pleasure in) those IN CHRIST as much as those that are not IN CHRIST where LOVE was defined by @EleventhHour as "to take pleasure from". You said God takes displeasure in those NOT IN CHRIST. This implies God takes more displeasure in those NOT IN CHRIST than those IN CHRIST. Those, God does not love everyone the same.
Caveat: This wsas Eleventhhour definition .. so maybe not fair as your definition may be different.
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Question 2:
Colossians 3:14 Beyond all these things put on and wrap yourselves in [unselfish] love, which is the perfect bond of unity [for everything is bound together in agreement when each one seeks the best
Here is a biblical definition of love (perfect bond of unity). I understand how those "in christ" have a perfect bond of unity. How do you propose unbelievers (son of Satan) have a perfect bond of unity with God which is a definition of love?
My Response: So ... assuming you agree that Col. 3:14 defines LOVE as a PERFECT BOND OF UNITY. Are you saying God loves those with a Perfect Bond Of Unity (those IN CHRIST) the same those without this Bond Of UNITY. That contradicts the biblical definition. God always knew that these people that are NOT IN CHRIST would never have a PERFECT BOND OF UNITY which is a definition of God's Love). How can God love those that lack a PERFECT BOND OF UNITY which is what LOVE is?
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Question 3:
How can a Holy God love that which is unholy? (i.e. son of Satan) Does He deny His own essence? Can He love that which He is repulsed by?
My response: You say God "does not love that which is unholy" which are all those NOT IN CHRIST; yet God loves people that are UNHOLY. That is a contradiction IMO.
Definition of Holy: Holiness in God is to be regarded not as a distinct attribute, but as the resultant of all God's moral attributes together. In respect to God, holiness means not only that He is separate from all that is unclean and evil but also that He is positively pure and thus distinct from all others. The two aspects of this divine attribute place emphasis on his moral perfection and metaphysical transcendence. Both aspects imply separation from that which is morally or metaphysically inferior.
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Question 4:
Faith cometh by hearing so those that do not hear the gospel have no chance of salvation. Assuming you agree with that statement …
Why does God not ensure the gospel (faith cometh by hearing) is sent to those He loves?
How are people that never hear the gospel saved?(Not talking about age of accountability) This is a doctrine I am unfamiliar with. Are more people saved via this method than those saved by the gospel?
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Question 5:
My Response: Oooops, my bad
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Thanks for answering my questions. Only one that attempted so far (I haven't caught up... maybe someone attempted)
Question 1:
Your definition of LOVE ... Take pleasure in is a definition of God's Love:
Does God "take pleasure in" the wicked as much as he does those IN CHRIST ???? (note: this was @EleventhHour definition and therefore question for her)
If your answer is NO. Would that not be good reason to say "God does not love everyone the same amount"?
"Does God "take pleasure in" the wicked as much as he does those IN CHRIST?"
God does not take pleasure in their sinful deeds, but He does take pleasure in the fact that they are His image bearers. One thing He most certainly does NOT take pleasure in is their destruction. He says "I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live." (Ezekiel 33:11) Why does He not take pleasure in the destruction of people He supposedly hates?
God does not take pleasure in their sinful deeds, but He does take pleasure in the fact that they are His image bearers. One thing He most certainly does NOT take pleasure in is their destruction. He says "I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live." (Ezekiel 33:11) Why does He not take pleasure in the destruction of people He supposedly hates?
Caveat: This wsas Eleventhhour definition .. so maybe not fair as your definition may be different.
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Question 2:
Colossians 3:14 Beyond all these things put on and wrap yourselves in [unselfish] love, which is the perfect bond of unity [for everything is bound together in agreement when each one seeks the best
Here is a biblical definition of love (perfect bond of unity). I understand how those "in christ" have a perfect bond of unity. How do you propose unbelievers (son of Satan) have a perfect bond of unity with God which is a definition of love?
They do not presently have a perfect bond of unity with God, of course. That does not mean that there is no desire on God's part for that perfect bond of unity to become effected. Let's put it this way; the Prodigal son did not have a perfect bond of unity when he left his Father's house. Yet, that did not keep his Father from loving him.
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Question 3:
How can a Holy God love that which is unholy? (i.e. son of Satan) Does He deny His own essence? Can He love that which He is repulsed by?
This was already answered before. He does not love that which is unholy, i.e. sin. He loves that which was made in His image.
Definition of Holy: Holiness in God is to be regarded not as a distinct attribute, but as the resultant of all God's moral attributes together. In respect to God, holiness means not only that He is separate from all that is unclean and evil but also that He is positively pure and thus distinct from all others. The two aspects of this divine attribute place emphasis on his moral perfection and metaphysical transcendence. Both aspects imply separation from that which is morally or metaphysically inferior.
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Question 4:
Faith cometh by hearing so those that do not hear the gospel have no chance of salvation. Assuming you agree with that statement …
Why does God not ensure the gospel (faith cometh by hearing) is sent to those He loves?
The issue of the fate of the unevangelized is a whole different subject, but personally, I do not place limits on God's ability to effect salvation even in those cases.
“God desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth” (1 Timothy 2:4)
If He desires them to be saved, they can be saved.
“God desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth” (1 Timothy 2:4)
If He desires them to be saved, they can be saved.
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Question 5:
5) This is a repeat of question 2.
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Thanks for answering my questions. Only one that attempted so far (I haven't caught up... maybe someone attempted)