Roberth,
You are selectively answering my questions.
Many of my questions remain unanswered.
You believe the following (as evident from your posts):
=>"our life from Adam...i.e., our humanity indwelt with iniquity."
=>"Christ took upon His Deity our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity."
=> The Law required our death to free us from the Adamic fallen condition we inherited
=> Jesus died to free us from that Adamic fallen condition
=>and we(our old Adamic humanity indwelt with iniquity) died with him 2000 years ago
My questions to the above beliefs are:
1) If the Law required mankind to die, why didn't it require Jesus (who according to you, had our "fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity") to die under the Law as well?
2) How can one person (Jesus) with the same "humanity indwelt with iniquity" redeem another(us) with the same condition?
3) If your "humanity indwelt with iniquity" died at the cross 2000 years ago, are you saying after believing in Jesus, your "bent-to-self" nature (corrupted nature, as a result of Adam's sin)has died, and, today, you no more have the selfish tendencies of fallen man?(note that selfish bent-to-self tendency is different from willfully committed sin)