How can God justify the ungodly and still maintain His integrity to His law?

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onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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Have you tried reading Galatians 3:10 and Exodus 20:5 ? One says the son won't bear the iniquity of the father,one says he will!!!!! Very confusing
You are probably talking about Ezekiel 18:20 (not Gal 3:10) and Exodus 20:5.
I will look into it and try to answer your question sometime later.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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Originally Posted by Roberth



"In Christ" we stand justified, sanctified and redeemed (glorified). This is our standing in Christ through faith. In Him we are perfect now and in the judgment. We can add nothing to this through our works. To try to add to God's work "in Christ" is legalism.

Gal 5:4 You who are trying to be justified by law have been alienated from Christ; you have fallen away from grace.

It seems that you are again quoting verses out of context. The context here is the issue of circumcision, as some claimed to be required by the Law. Peter, Paul, Barnabas and the elders are refuting them.

what do you mean by "works?"
How can one try to add to God's work?
Can you give some examples of how we try to add to God's work?
Roberth,
You are discussing about the moral law, but you have quote verses about ceremonial law(circumcision). This is why I say that you have quoted verses out of context.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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Wasn't Jesus innocent?
And wasn't Adam guilty?
Wasn't entire mankind were under the curse of Adam's sin?
So you are now contradicting your Original Post by now saying that an innocent man died for the guilty, aren't you?
Jesus is God, period. But, at the incarnation God the Father clothed Christ's Deity with our fallen humanity. That humanity was ours, it wasn't Christ's by native right.

Heb 10: Therefore, when He (Christ as God) came into the world (through the incarnation), He (Christ as God) said: "Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, But a body (Christ as man) You have prepared for Me (Christ as God)..

Remember that God'is Spirit. He does not live in the physical realm. But at the incarnation God the Father mysteriously blended Christ's Deity (i.e, the Spirit of God) to our fallen, corporate humanity in Mary's womb.

Therefore Christ as God took upon His sinless, divine nature, our sinful humanity indwelt with our love of self (iniquity). Why? To redeem it!
So, was Jesus innocent or not?
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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No, I didn't.
The Law points everyone to Christ, even today. However, we are not obligated by it once Christ died for ur. We are obligated to Christ.
The Law is included in the cannon for us to learn from it, and not the be obligated by it.

I repeat what I have said earlier: The Law was a shadow; transitory; temporary; schoolmaster; a means to an end-Jesus! The Law has done it's work: to point us to Jesus.
Jesus is the reality!
IF you don't have Christ you are under the law. Since there's none righteous, the law will condemn the unbeliever in the judgment.

There is a judge for the one who rejects me and does not accept my words; the very words I have spoken will condemn them at the last day.[John 12:48]
Jesus gets to speak the final words that are binding on all. We will be judged according to the "very words" of Jesus.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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Roberth,
You are saying that Jesus died to save us from "our old life."
By "old life" you mean the fallen sinful natures we inherited, as a result of Adam's sin.
By "old life" you mean our bent-to-self nature that we inherited as Adam's offspring.
You are saying that the Law required us to die and be freed from this old bent-to-self nature.
You are also saying that when Christ died 2000 years ago, we died with him (as per requirement of the Law), and our old bent-to-self nature died.

How do you explain the following verse?
He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness. By his wounds you have been healed.[1 Pet 2:24]
Isn't this verse saying that Jesus bore OUR SINS in his body? (Now don't ask how at the moment.We'll deal with the hows later.)
What sin of ours did Jesus bear in his body?
Is it talking about Adam's sin imputed to us (our sinful condition, as a result of Adam's sin), OR our own transgressions (sins we have personally committed)?
If Jesus died to absolve us from our old lives (and fallen natures that we inherited from Adam), what provision did God make for our personal transgressions committed in our lifetimes?



No, I mean our life from Adam...i.e., our humanity indwelt with iniquity. The whole man is wretched. As Paul says, "I
know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells" (Rom 7:18)



Christ as God is eternal. He is sinless, but at the incarnation Christ took upon His Deity our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity. So He bore the results of "our sins" in His body since He assumed our fallen humanity. He assumed us to redeem us from under the curse of the law.

Adam's was guilty of sin.
We were born in a fallen state, due to Adam's sin.
To possess a fallen human state means to be guilty before God.
If Jesus was born with the fallen human state(according to you), that would make him guilty before God.
How then could one guilty person(Christ) redeem another(us)?

 
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redeemed2014

Guest
Adam's was guilty of sin.
We were born in a fallen state, due to Adam's sin.
To possess a fallen human state means to be guilty before God.
If Jesus was born with the fallen human state(according to you), that would make him guilty before God.
How then could one guilty person(Christ) redeem another(us)?

The Lord Jesus Christ was born of a virgin, When a woman is pregnant her blood and the unborn child's blood do not mix (Please research this if you do not believe me). Since He was the only begotten son of the Father his blood was 100% divine due to the fact that Mary's blood never came into contact with Jesus's Blood. To end the curse Jesus had to be 100%man and 100%God and due to the fact that The Lord Jesus Christ's blood never came into contact with Mary's blood he was not born into the Adamic sin nature. Therefore was sinless before the whole world and not guilty. The Lord never sinned but took on sin at the cross for our eternal redemption
 
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redeemed2014

Guest
Yes, Jesus was innocent, the Lord never committed a sin. The Adamic sin nature does not apply to him because his blood was not from the line of Adam but was 100% divine
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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Yes, Jesus was innocent, the Lord never committed a sin. The Adamic sin nature does not apply to him because his blood was not from the line of Adam but was 100% divine

redeem2014, I agree with you that Jesus was innocent and that he never committed a single sin.
I also agree that Jesus did not inherit the Adamic sinful condition that Roberth is talking about.
I also agree with your previous post.

My question was to Roberth.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
1,115
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No, I mean our life from Adam...i.e., our humanity indwelt with iniquity. The whole man is wretched. As Paul says, "I
know that in me (that is, in my flesh) nothing good dwells" (Rom 7:18)



Christ as God is eternal. He is sinless, but at the incarnation Christ took upon His Deity our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity. So He bore the results of "our sins" in His body since He assumed our fallen humanity. He assumed us to redeem us from under the curse of the law.

Really? Guilty of what?

Roberth, Please read your own posts (as quoted above) carefully.

In the first post above, you are saying that "
Christ took upon His Deity our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity."
What is your definition of iniquity?
Doesn't iniquity make one guilty?

In your second post, you are saying, "Guilty of what?"

You have continuously been contradicting your own words, and quoting verses out of context.
 
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redeemed2014

Guest
My apologies online buddy, I am glad that we are in agreement I misunderstood I thought you were asking in general.
 

onlinebuddy

Senior Member
Sep 1, 2012
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Roberth,
You are selectively answering my questions.
Many of my questions remain unanswered.

You believe the following (as evident from your posts):
=>"our life from Adam...i.e., our humanity indwelt with iniquity."
=>"
Christ took upon His Deity our fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity."
=>
The Law required our death to free us from the Adamic fallen condition we inherited
=> Jesus died to free us from that Adamic fallen condition
=>and we(our old Adamic humanity indwelt with iniquity) died with him 2000 years ago

My questions to the above beliefs are:
1) If the Law required mankind to die, why didn't it require Jesus (who according to you, had our "fallen humanity indwelt with iniquity") to die under the Law as well?
2) How can one person (Jesus) with the same "humanity indwelt with iniquity" redeem another(us) with the same condition?
3) If your "humanity indwelt with iniquity" died at the cross 2000 years ago, are you saying after believing in Jesus, your "bent-to-self" nature (corrupted nature, as a result of Adam's sin)has died, and, today, you no more have the selfish tendencies of fallen man?(note that selfish bent-to-self tendency is different from willfully committed sin)

 
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FreeNChrist

Guest
Because your question is based on error.
Your beliefs perfectly align with those of the false prophetess of the SDA, Ellen G White. Is that merely a coincidence?
 
Oct 3, 2015
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Doesn't iniquity make one guilty?
Again, how? Guilty of what? You aren't answering my question.

Iniquity isn't the same as transgression. Transgression is the breaking of a known law. In the case of the Bible sin = transgression of the law. See 1 John 3:4

What then is iniquity?

The primary meaning of iniquity is not an act but a condition. As a result of the fall, man by very nature is spiritually “bent,” so that the driving force of his very nature is love of self. Paul defines it as “the law of sin and death” [Romans 7:23; 8:2]. It is this condition that is the basis of all our sinning....
 
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Your beliefs perfectly align with those of the false prophetess of the SDA, Ellen G White. Is that merely a coincidence?
Your beliefs are in line with "the immaculate conception", which is a Catholic heresy.
 
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FreeNChrist

Guest
Your beliefs are in line with "the immaculate conception", which is a Catholic heresy.
I'll take that as a YES then. It's good to know the source of what you are promoting.
 
Oct 3, 2015
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I'll take that as a YES then. It's good to know the source of what you are promoting.
1] My source is the Bible and the Bible only. Comprehend?

2] SDA have a basic problem - they tend to teach a subtle form of legalism and many make Ellen White their pope.

I haven't attended church since 1997. I am a non-attending Christian. Now, back to the subject.

These distractions are a tool to used to change the subject.