Oneness theology teaches that God was in the mode of the Father in the Old Testament. God was seen in the OT (not as a vision or a dream or an angel in the following verses: Exo. 6:2-3; Gen. 19:24; Num. 12:6-. But, Jesus said no one has seen the Father (John 6:46). If they were seeing God Almighty (Exo. 6:2-3) but it wasn't the Father, then who was it?
It was God, Moses could not see God, he asked if he could see, but God said that he could not see Him, only His trailing glory, but Moses did not see God directly when God put him in the cleft of the rock, the KJV crudely translates it as 'back parts', but it would be more eloquent to say 'trailing glory', the KJV can be a little blunt in its translation.
If Jesus' will and the Father's will were identical, then why did Jesus express the desire to escape the cup but resigns Himself not to His own will, but the will of the Father?
Well that's His humanity and that's the template, the
logos for the human quality of humility, resignation, fear, trepidation and then courage and servitude, all these qualities have to be performed by Jesus who is the method by which Creation is brought in.
Was Jesus praying to Himself in the Garden of Gethsemane?
Before Jesus as a man prayed to God as a Son to Father, it was not possible for any man to do that, there was no link, you could not just pray to God the Father, that was unthinkable, God was remote, He called on only His chosen prophets, nobody could expect that they could just pray as they liked and be heard, God had always initiated the connection between Him and humanity, but after Jesus Christ man or woman could pray anywhere at anytime to God, you did not have to build a temple and aproach the holy of holies as a Levitical priest with offerings and sacrifice, you could just pray like Jesus did, why because He is God and the Creator of all things, if He wants man to pray to Him, then He has to do it first, it is all His creation, the whole idea is that He is God, just because we can see humanity in Jesus Christ does not mean that He is not Father God.
Why was Jesus not saying, "Not My will, but MY will be done?" if there is only one person and one will involved when He was praying in Luke 22:42 & Matt. 26:39.
Because He is in the process of salvaging humanity, which means He has to create the method by which it can be done, what can He say? "By my sinful human flesh, let it be done", of course not, no it cannot be the will of a man, condemned to death, it must be done by the will of the Father, so Jesus prays, "not my (small 'm' note) will but thine", and what a beautiful verse it is, the prayer between a man and his creator resigning himself facing death and facing the wrath of God and all the sin ever commited, He has to take in one mortal body of flesh, no wonder He sweated blood, the pressure would have been unfathomable.
Since the Bible teaches us that Jesus is in bodily form now (Col. 2:9), then how does the Oneness Pentecostal person maintain that God is in the form of the Holy Spirit? Also, when Jesus returns, will He return in His body? Will God's form then revert to the form of the Son at a later date?
The Holy Spirit is sent by Jesus (John 16:7) when He has departed in the body, however His Spirit of course can be present at the same time (Mark 1:10).
If God is only one person, why did Jesus say in John 14:23, "If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him." If God is only one person, why does Jesus say, "we"?
I understand it that God does not deny His own humanity, it's like if God acts with all His host of Heaven, He can say "we".