Is KJV the only real bible version?

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Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Logic dictates there can only be one Word of God and not many Word's of God. For God is not the author of confusion. I believe the KJV to be the divinely inspired Word of God for our world language today (Amongst a long line of perfect Word's in different languages thru out history (i.e. English, Latin, Greek, and Hebrew). For the Scriptures say that God's Word is perfect and that it would be preserved forever. Something that has errors in it is not perfect. It's either God's perfect Word or it is not.

Now, that said, while I believe the KJV is the perfect Word for today, it is written in Old English of the 1600's. So for the new student who is not familar with this language and it's symbolic language and how English words we use today were used slightly different back then, one can easily misunderstand what is truly being said. So I recommend in making the KJV your final Word of authority but do not force Modern English upon Old English, though. For one must realize that words change with the passage of time and that words can look the same but have different meanings or usages. In other words, use Modern Translations or look at various different Parallel Translations ( Bible Hub: Search, Read, Study the Bible in Many Languages ) and compare it with the KJV and look at the original languages with a Strong's Concordance with an Interlinear Comparison ( Blue Letter Bible is a good site for this). Also, always make sure your understanding of a passage or verse lines up with the context (i.e. the surrounding passages). Furthermore, it is also good to look for cross references, too (Check out Bible Cross References ). In addition, ask the Lord for understanding when you read the Scriptures (Jeremiah 33:3).
I think that's a cool idea, that there's only one word of God... from previous posts, I think the 1769 KJV fits the bill for you... people would still have been using the Latin in 1768... I'm guessing maybe they destroyed those latin copies when the 1769 kjv was released???
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
Your analogy doesn't match what you say you believe. In your analogy you have each one of the 10 witnesses giving 10 accurate TRUE accounts of the car crash. I agree with that, and that is what the bible does in the 4 gospel accounts of the resurrection.

But that's not what you believe. You believe that there is some truth in all bibles but all bibles contain errors. That's like one of your 10 witnesses saying the car that wrecked was blue, and another says the car was red, and another says it was white. Obviously either one or more of the witnesses got it wrong or the car was red and blue with white stripes. Either way, it is impossible to know the real truth of that story, the best you can do is pick the story that you best fits your needs.
I think that's why the spirit was sent, to guide us into all truth.
 
M

Mitspa

Guest
Language of Jesus - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia



What were the ten commandments written in? What is the Old Covenant written in?
Who needs to conform to who? Our Father conforms to us, or we conform to Him?

Why is this so hard to see?
What? has that got to do with the fact that it is well known and established that the New testament was written in Greek? Which God chose to preach and teach the gospel to the whole world...knowing that the Jews would in large part reject His Son ... He picked the Greek to speak to the Gentiles...makes perfect and Godly sense!
 

Lynx

Folksy yet erudite
Aug 13, 2014
25,410
8,397
113
beeskillet may have been banned but I see his effort to cause arguments was not in vain. He's probably still reading these threads and I'll bet he is delighted by all the fussing in this one.
 
M

Mitspa

Guest
Jon_1:9 And he said unto them, I am an Hebrew; and I fear YHWH, the Elohim of heaven, which hath made the sea and the dry land.

Joh_5:2 Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches.

Joh_19:13 When Pilate therefore heard that saying, he brought Yahushua forth, and sat down in the judgment seat in a place that is called the Pavement, but in the Hebrew, Gabbatha.

Joh_19:17 And he bearing his stake went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha:

Joh_19:20 This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Yahushua was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin.

Act_21:40 And when he had given him licence, Paul stood on the stairs, and beckoned with the hand unto the people. And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue, saying,

Act_22:2 (And when they heard that he spake in the Hebrew tongue to them, they kept the more silence: and he saith,)

Act_26:14 And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice speaking unto me, and saying in the Hebrew tongue, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the pricks.

Rev_16:16 And he gathered them together into a place called in the Hebrew tongue Armageddon.

Think about this...why would the text refer to how a word was pronounced in the Hebrew if the text was written in Hebrew? It was not! It was written in Greek...think about it!
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,782
2,952
113
So what's the error?
The Greek is Greek to me, I have no idea what it says. Could you translate it for me... put it into your own words. Because all I see is all of Judaea and some of Jerusalem going to be baptized by John in the Jordan river and the ESV contradicting itself.

In Mark the ESV says that all of Jerusalem went out to him, but in Matthew the ESV just says Jerusalem.

"And all the country of Judea and all Jerusalem were going out to him and were being baptized by him in the river Jordan, confessing their sins." Mark 1:5 ESV

Matthew 3:5English Standard Version (ESV)

5 Then Jerusalem and all Judea and all the region about the Jordan were going out to him,


The KJV is consistent, neither verse says all, because all of Jerusalem didn't go to him.

Mar 1:5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.

Mat 3:5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan,


I don't know, what do you think, did the ESV get it wrong? I've got to go to bed, I'll address the rest of your post later.

You're kidding, right? You ask for proof from the Greek, which apparently you know nothing of, and I give it to you, and then you tell me the KJV is right because of some opinion, not because that is what the original language.

I hate nothing worse than copy and pastes of words from Bible websites, but I will try and just a few words.

"All Jerusalem" (ESV) in Mark 1:5! OK?? OR "all the people of Jerusalem" NASB OR "οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται πάντες" Greek

1. KJV "They of Jerusalem."

Basic ENGLISH grammar lesson. KJV is using the genitive or possessive case. That is indicated by the word "OF"

Possessive in ENGLISH:
The book of Paul = Paul's books.

The car of his = His car.

The house of theirs - Their house.

Notice how the word "OF" is used to denote possession, just like the words "his" and "their" and the apostrophe.

In Greek, they use a different method of denoting possession, which is making the word have a different ending, usually OU for the end of a masculine word, or OWN for a masculine plural word.

Since the Greek does NOT use this form of the word, but rather uses the subject spelling ὁ or ho for the masculine singular, which is how it appears in Lexicons (Hoi or οἱ in the plural- not to confuse your poor little brain with the Greek, of course!) Of course, the fact is, this word οἱ or Hoi, is NOT the word THEY.

Further, the οἱ or hoi is not actually translated because it precedes a proper name. All proper nouns or names are preceded by the definite article - the - including the name of Jesus, eg ἐδάκρυσεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Jesus wept from John 11:35. This does not translate into English, so ALL those words for the, singular and plural are never translated in any version.

Lexicon :: Strong's G3588 - ho




[TABLE="width: 0"]
[TR]
[TD="align: left"]
Transliteration
ho
[/TD]
[TD="align: left"]
Pronunciation
ho (Key)
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="align: left"]
Part of Speech
article
[/TD]
[TD="align: left"]
Root Word (Etymology)
In all their inflections, the definite article
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2, align: left"]
Outline of Biblical Usage


  1. [*=1|left]
    this, that, these, etc.
    Only significant renderings other than "the" counted
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2, align: left"]
KJV Translation Count — Total: 543x
The KJV translates Strongs G3588 in the following manner: which (413x), who (79x), the things (11x), the son (8x),misc (32x).
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

Hoi, or οἱ is the masculine plural of the word "THE".

The correct word to use for "they" would be either autos or Houtos

The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon[TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 320"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD] Strong's Number: 846[/TD]
[TD="width: 120, align: center"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]αὐτὸς[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]from the particle au [perhaps akin to the base of (109) through the idea of a baffling wind] (backward)[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Autos[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]None[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]ow-tos' [/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"][/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]
  1. himself, herself, themselves, itself

  1. he, she, it
  2. the same

(And of course, "they" is the plural of he, she it!)
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] King James Word Usage - Total: 5118[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]him 1947, them 1148, her 195, it 152, not tr. 36, miscellaneous 1676



The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon
[TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 320"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD] Strong's Number: 3778[/TD]
[TD="width: 120, align: center"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]οὗτος[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]from the article (3588) and (846)[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Houtos[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]None[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]hoo'-tos [/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"][/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]
  1. this, these, etc.
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] King James Word Usage - Total: 356[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]this 157, these 59, he 31, the same 28, this man 25, she 12, they 10, miscellaneous 34



2. All - in Greek Pas, pasa, pan in the subject. The Greek uses πάντες or pantes which is the nominative plural

(Wait - I forgot to say that singular means "one" and plural means "more than one." In English and any other language!)

The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon[TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 320"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD] Strong's Number: 3956[/TD]
[TD="width: 120, align: center"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]πᾶς[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]including all the forms of declension[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Pas[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]5:886,795[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]pas[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Adjective[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]
  1. individually
    1. each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
  2. collectively
    1. some of all types
Pas - New Testament Greek Lexicon - King James Version[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
As you can plainly see, "all Jerusalem" is the correct translation from "οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται πάντες."[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
You're kidding, right? You ask for proof from the Greek, which apparently you know nothing of, and I give it to you, and then you tell me the KJV is right because of some opinion, not because that is what the original language.

I hate nothing worse than copy and pastes of words from Bible websites, but I will try and just a few words.

"All Jerusalem" (ESV) in Mark 1:5! OK?? OR "all the people of Jerusalem" NASB OR "οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται πάντες" Greek

1. KJV "They of Jerusalem."

Basic ENGLISH grammar lesson. KJV is using the genitive or possessive case. That is indicated by the word "OF"

Possessive in ENGLISH:
The book of Paul = Paul's books.

The car of his = His car.

The house of theirs - Their house.

Notice how the word "OF" is used to denote possession, just like the words "his" and "their" and the apostrophe.

In Greek, they use a different method of denoting possession, which is making the word have a different ending, usually OU for the end of a masculine word, or OWN for a masculine plural word.

Since the Greek does NOT use this form of the word, but rather uses the subject spelling ὁ or ho for the masculine singular, which is how it appears in Lexicons (Hoi or οἱ in the plural- not to confuse your poor little brain with the Greek, of course!) Of course, the fact is, this word οἱ or Hoi, is NOT the word THEY.

Further, the οἱ or hoi is not actually translated because it precedes a proper name. All proper nouns or names are preceded by the definite article - the - including the name of Jesus, eg ἐδάκρυσεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς, Jesus wept from John 11:35. This does not translate into English, so ALL those words for the, singular and plural are never translated in any version.

Lexicon :: Strong's G3588 - ho




[TABLE="width: 0"]
[TR]
[TD="align: left"]
Transliteration
ho
[/TD]
[TD="align: left"]
Pronunciation
ho (Key)
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="align: left"]
Part of Speech
article
[/TD]
[TD="align: left"]
Root Word (Etymology)
In all their inflections, the definite article
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2, align: left"]
Outline of Biblical Usage


  1. [*=1|left]
    this, that, these, etc.
    Only significant renderings other than "the" counted
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2, align: left"]
KJV Translation Count — Total: 543x
The KJV translates Strongs G3588 in the following manner: which (413x), who (79x), the things (11x), the son (8x),misc (32x).
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

Hoi, or οἱ is the masculine plural of the word "THE".

The correct word to use for "they" would be either autos or Houtos

The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon[TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 320"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD] Strong's Number: 846[/TD]
[TD="width: 120, align: center"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]αὐτὸς[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]from the particle au [perhaps akin to the base of (109) through the idea of a baffling wind] (backward)[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Autos[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]None[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]ow-tos' [/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"][/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]
  1. himself, herself, themselves, itself

  1. he, she, it
  2. the same

(And of course, "they" is the plural of he, she it!)
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] King James Word Usage - Total: 5118[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]him 1947, them 1148, her 195, it 152, not tr. 36, miscellaneous 1676



The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon
[TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 320"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD] Strong's Number: 3778[/TD]
[TD="width: 120, align: center"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]οὗτος[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]from the article (3588) and (846)[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Houtos[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]None[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]hoo'-tos [/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"][/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]
  1. this, these, etc.
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] King James Word Usage - Total: 356[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]this 157, these 59, he 31, the same 28, this man 25, she 12, they 10, miscellaneous 34



2. All - in Greek Pas, pasa, pan in the subject. The Greek uses πάντες or pantes which is the nominative plural

(Wait - I forgot to say that singular means "one" and plural means "more than one." In English and any other language!)

The KJV New Testament Greek Lexicon[TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 320"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD] Strong's Number: 3956[/TD]
[TD="width: 120, align: center"][/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][TABLE="width: 100%"]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Original Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Word Origin[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]πᾶς[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]including all the forms of declension[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Transliterated Word[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]TDNT Entry[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Pas[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]5:886,795[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]Phonetic Spelling[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Parts of Speech[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="width: 50%"]pas[/TD]
[TD="width: 50%"]Adjective[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"] Definition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"]
  1. individually
    1. each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
  2. collectively
    1. some of all types
Pas - New Testament Greek Lexicon - King James Version[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD="colspan: 2"][/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
As you can plainly see, "all Jerusalem" is the correct translation from "οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται πάντες."[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
This can be solved by answering 1 question... Were all the people of Judea and all the people of Jerusalem baptized? Answer - No. The ESV is wrong when it says all the country of Judea and all Jerusalem were baptized. Wouldn't you agree?

Now I will show you that the KJV is exactly right. I will break each section down for you.

And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea - This means that peoples from all the cities in the geographical area known as Judea went to John.

And they of Jerusalem - This means people that lived in Jerusalem.

And were all baptized of him - This means that all those from all the cities in the geographical area known as Judea and those from the city of Jerusalem went to John to be baptized. Note: it does not say that all people of Judea and all people of Jerusalem were baptized like the ESV says.

Pretty cut and dry don't you think?
 

DiscipleDave

Senior Member
Sep 4, 2012
3,095
69
48
I know so many people who prefer the KJV over any other version. Some say the KJV is the real version and the real true word of God and I heard there's some Christians who only believe in reading the only KJV and so forth. I personally have a way of believe this because I have read the NLT or NIV and found many contradictions. So, perhaps I should read the KJV. I am confused though.
Any version that can bring a person to the Lord Jesus, and bring that person to Salvation in our Lord Jesus Christ, can't be a bad version.
However, it is when people start calling OTHER versions the Word of God, is when the error occurs. Other versions are great at getting people to the Lord, but if you are going to study the Word of God, then use the version that God Himself has protected and preserved for over 400 years, and many of our Christian brothers and sisters have shed their blood for, and that is the KJV.
^i^
^i^
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
So when did the KJV become this perfect translation to you? You have never answered that ! I think there has been 8 revisions now?
Why don't you go find the differences between the versions and we will discuss them.
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
I don't see the letters KJV in there... do you mean that in any language, the seventh translation is the right one?
No KJV is not there but name another translation that was tried in an earthen furnace, purified 7 times.
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
113
I think I asked this a long time ago... how does a person find the right translation in any language? I think the answer was the Daniel 3:25 test... how it was translated... we can legally take any public domain bible, alter that verse, and then it will be the right version.
Yep that's a pretty good guideline... if the translation promotes a son of the gods being with you during your fiery trial, best stay clear of it.
 
U

Ukorin

Guest
This can be solved by answering 1 question... Were all the people of Judea and all the people of Jerusalem baptized? Answer - No. The ESV is wrong when it says all the country of Judea and all Jerusalem were baptized. Wouldn't you agree?

Now I will show you that the KJV is exactly right. I will break each section down for you.

And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea - This means that peoples from all the cities in the geographical area known as Judea went to John.

And they of Jerusalem - This means people that lived in Jerusalem.

And were all baptized of him - This means that all those from all the cities in the geographical area known as Judea and those from the city of Jerusalem went to John to be baptized. Note: it does not say that all people of Judea and all people of Jerusalem were baptized like the ESV says.

Pretty cut and dry don't you think?
Not at all.
If you take your uber-literal interpretation of the ESV, and apply it directly to the KJV,
then the KJV says that every single person in Judea went out and were baptized by John.
Jerusalem is in Judea, therefore the KJV agrees with your interpretation of the ESV that EVERY person in Jerusalem went out and was baptized, along with the rest of everyone in all Judea.

The TRUTH of the matter is, that neither version is actually saying that every individual person in Judea went out to John, but are saying MANY. I have never heard such a foolish interpretation. It is a phrase, not a literal absolute statement of "all" meaning every single person...
That said, neither version is saying that every single person went out to John.

Do you really think you have a valid argument here?
 
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My feeling is that God doesn't want people to have the inerrant word. I think this because of how the nt writers quote the ot... one example is Isaiah 60, compare it with Luke's quote in Luke 4... close, but not the same...

Why would God not want an inerrant word that could be printed? My guess is that it then becomes tempting to worship the printed word... kind of like how we're not supposed to make 'graven images'...

(not saying anyone here is doing that, but the temptation is there...)
No of course your not saying that... I'll tell you straight up I worship the KJV. I know who it is.
 
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Are you aware that the KJV and the ESV are translated from different texts?
I do, I think most people know there is a vine of Christ and a vine of Sodom.
 
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Paul in the NT quotes Deutoronomy 32:43

New Testament
Hebrews 1:6 ( KJV ) [SUP]6[/SUP]And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

He quotes this verse from Deuteronomy 32:43

Masoretic text (KJV)
Deuteronomy 32:43 ( KJV ) [SUP]43[/SUP]Rejoice, O ye nations, with his people: for he will avenge the blood of his servants, and will render vengeance to his adversaries, and will be merciful unto his land, and to his people.

Where in the KJV (Deu 32:43) is the phrase, "And let all the angels of God worship him. " that Paul quoted? It's not there. It seems that either Paul or the KJV is wrong, I doubt it's Paul.
Where do you get Paul was quoting Deuteronomy 32:43 in Hebrews 1:6?
 

Lynx

Folksy yet erudite
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Aaaaaaand... beeskillet is probably dancing with joy over the argument he has caused here.

Not that he should take pride in this. Starting an argument here is easy. All you have to do is start a thread with one of the hot-button topics and the ranters will do the rest. :rolleyes:
 
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I think that's why the spirit was sent, to guide us into all truth.
You mean like the spirit that guides those that follow Todd Bentley, Joel Osteen, Paula White, Benny Hinn and the like. You know there are two spirits that guide people... the Holy Spirit and the Spirit of Antichrist. I wonder if the Holy Spirit guides people to believe God's word corrupted?
 
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Not at all.
If you take your uber-literal interpretation of the ESV, and apply it directly to the KJV,
then the KJV says that every single person in Judea went out and were baptized by John.
Jerusalem is in Judea, therefore the KJV agrees with your interpretation of the ESV that EVERY person in Jerusalem went out and was baptized, along with the rest of everyone in all Judea.

The TRUTH of the matter is, that neither version is actually saying that every individual person in Judea went out to John, but are saying MANY. I have never heard such a foolish interpretation. It is a phrase, not a literal absolute statement of "all" meaning every single person...
That said, neither version is saying that every single person went out to John.

Do you really think you have a valid argument here?
Ok, prove it. Put Mark 1:5 into your own words.

Mar 1:5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.
 
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Aaaaaaand... beeskillet is probably dancing with joy over the argument he has caused here.

Not that he should take pride in this. Starting an argument here is easy. All you have to do is start a thread with one of the hot-button topics and the ranters will do the rest. :rolleyes:
That's the best post on this thread so far lol.
 
K

Kerry

Guest
It's been the staple for Baptist, Methodist, Presbyterian, AOG, COG, COGOP, Church of Christ, Church of the Nazarene, Lutheran, Episcopalian, Congregational Holiness, United pentecostal, Independent, church of God in Christ, Wesleyan and so on thats all I can call to remembrance at this point. So why change it, unless there are other motives at work. I posted a thing months back about an atheist group that said they would change the bible little by little (started in 1969), but you can't change the KJV.