Jesus comes immediately AFTER the tribulation, there is no Left Behind Secret Rapture=Stop causing fear.
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"Oddly enough, Matthew 24:29-31 was not foretold in the Old Testament"
If this is your conclusion you are in a lot of trouble my friend. Those particular verses are by far the most prophesied in all the Old Testament. You don't understand that the Second Coming is the predominant prophetic theme of the Old Testament?
If this is your conclusion you are in a lot of trouble my friend. Those particular verses are by far the most prophesied in all the Old Testament. You don't understand that the Second Coming is the predominant prophetic theme of the Old Testament?
"Matt 24 (end time verses)"
Better stated as Matt 24 BEGINNING time verses. For this is in fact the beginning of the coming age, the Day of the Lord. It is my believe that this age begins at an event IN HEAVEN when Jesus "stands to judge" and takes the scroll from the hand of the Father (Rev 5:6-7). This event occurs post-rapture because the Church is seen in heaven rejoicing per Rev 5:9-10.
Loosely using the "end times" terminology in the wrong places is a bad habit of mine, I need to stop doing it lol.
Better stated as Matt 24 BEGINNING time verses. For this is in fact the beginning of the coming age, the Day of the Lord. It is my believe that this age begins at an event IN HEAVEN when Jesus "stands to judge" and takes the scroll from the hand of the Father (Rev 5:6-7). This event occurs post-rapture because the Church is seen in heaven rejoicing per Rev 5:9-10.
Loosely using the "end times" terminology in the wrong places is a bad habit of mine, I need to stop doing it lol.
Didn't John have the Revelation?
Wasn't he given the Revelation?
If his Disciples, taught by him, preach no secret Rapture, but one emphatically claims the Tribulation will be the Last Competition for the Believers, seems you are reading into the Revelation John was given.
He Would Know its meaning a trillion times better than you ever can turn it into a false doctrine.
Wasn't he given the Revelation?
If his Disciples, taught by him, preach no secret Rapture, but one emphatically claims the Tribulation will be the Last Competition for the Believers, seems you are reading into the Revelation John was given.
He Would Know its meaning a trillion times better than you ever can turn it into a false doctrine.
Didn't John have the Revelation?
Wasn't he given the Revelation?
If his Disciples, taught by him, preach no secret Rapture, but one emphatically claims the Tribulation will be the Last Competition for the Believers, seems you are reading into the Revelation John was given.
He Would Know its meaning a trillion times better than you ever can turn it into a false doctrine.
Wasn't he given the Revelation?
If his Disciples, taught by him, preach no secret Rapture, but one emphatically claims the Tribulation will be the Last Competition for the Believers, seems you are reading into the Revelation John was given.
He Would Know its meaning a trillion times better than you ever can turn it into a false doctrine.
Didn't John have the Revelation?
Wasn't he given the Revelation?
If his Disciples, taught by him, preach no secret Rapture, but one emphatically claims the Tribulation will be the Last Competition for the Believers, seems you are reading into the Revelation John was given.
He Would Know its meaning a trillion times better than you ever can turn it into a false doctrine.
Wasn't he given the Revelation?
If his Disciples, taught by him, preach no secret Rapture, but one emphatically claims the Tribulation will be the Last Competition for the Believers, seems you are reading into the Revelation John was given.
He Would Know its meaning a trillion times better than you ever can turn it into a false doctrine.
Good Morning,
Please post what you find in your 1611 version of Christ or the Apostles saying:
A.) Christ will rapture His Bride before His Coming
B.) Christ will rapture His Saints before the antichrist
C.) Christ will rapture His Elect before the Resurrection
D.) OT example of a group of Saints being raptured before Tribulation
Thank You
Please post what you find in your 1611 version of Christ or the Apostles saying:
A.) Christ will rapture His Bride before His Coming
B.) Christ will rapture His Saints before the antichrist
C.) Christ will rapture His Elect before the Resurrection
D.) OT example of a group of Saints being raptured before Tribulation
Thank You
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Have you ever read the Commentary the Writers of the KJV made?
They begin with, this (is not) an accurate description but it is close enough.
The translators argue that all previous English translations can rightly be called the Word of God, even though they may contain some “imperfections and blemishes.”
The KJV uses the word “unicorn” nine times and “satyr” twice (mythical mythology make believe animals found in witchcraft and paganism)
5. The translators of the KJV 1611 were relatively unfamiliar with Koine Greek.
Koine (“common”) Greek is the original language of the New Testament, but the KJV translators of the New Testament, who were accomplished scholars of Classical Greek, were relatively unfamiliar with Koine Greek. Koine Greek was not well-understood. Some people suggested it was a “Judaic” or “Hebraic” Greek.
6. The KJV translation of the NT is based on relatively recent Greek manuscripts.
As well as relying on previous English translations, the 1611 edition of the KJV relied on critically edited Greek texts that were “for the most part based on about half a dozen very late manuscripts” (none earlier than the 12th century AD).”[9] These Greek texts included five printed editions of the Greek New Testament by Erasmus,[10] as well as Robert Estienne’s (a.k.a. ‘Stephanus’) edition (1550) and Theodore Beza’s edition (1598). Michael Holmes writes more about the Greek texts behind English Bibles here.
Unfortunately, one of the manuscripts Estienne and Beza used for their Greek editions contained a few “corrections” that downplayed the importance of women in the church.[11]
7. The Textus Receptus, or Received Text, is basically Erasmus’ Greek Text.
Many KJV advocates claim that the New Testament in the King James Bible was translated from a Greek text known as the Textus Receptus (TR) and that the TR is especially accurate and inspired. The term Textus Receptus was first coined in 1633, after the KJV was first published, and it basically refers to Erasmus’ critical text. The current version of the TR was produced in 1894 by Scrivener who preferred the Byzantine, or Majority, Text. (The Byzantine-Majority Text is similar but not identical to the Textus Receptus.)[12]
They begin with, this (is not) an accurate description but it is close enough.
The translators argue that all previous English translations can rightly be called the Word of God, even though they may contain some “imperfections and blemishes.”
The KJV uses the word “unicorn” nine times and “satyr” twice (mythical mythology make believe animals found in witchcraft and paganism)
5. The translators of the KJV 1611 were relatively unfamiliar with Koine Greek.
Koine (“common”) Greek is the original language of the New Testament, but the KJV translators of the New Testament, who were accomplished scholars of Classical Greek, were relatively unfamiliar with Koine Greek. Koine Greek was not well-understood. Some people suggested it was a “Judaic” or “Hebraic” Greek.
6. The KJV translation of the NT is based on relatively recent Greek manuscripts.
As well as relying on previous English translations, the 1611 edition of the KJV relied on critically edited Greek texts that were “for the most part based on about half a dozen very late manuscripts” (none earlier than the 12th century AD).”[9] These Greek texts included five printed editions of the Greek New Testament by Erasmus,[10] as well as Robert Estienne’s (a.k.a. ‘Stephanus’) edition (1550) and Theodore Beza’s edition (1598). Michael Holmes writes more about the Greek texts behind English Bibles here.
Unfortunately, one of the manuscripts Estienne and Beza used for their Greek editions contained a few “corrections” that downplayed the importance of women in the church.[11]
7. The Textus Receptus, or Received Text, is basically Erasmus’ Greek Text.
Many KJV advocates claim that the New Testament in the King James Bible was translated from a Greek text known as the Textus Receptus (TR) and that the TR is especially accurate and inspired. The term Textus Receptus was first coined in 1633, after the KJV was first published, and it basically refers to Erasmus’ critical text. The current version of the TR was produced in 1894 by Scrivener who preferred the Byzantine, or Majority, Text. (The Byzantine-Majority Text is similar but not identical to the Textus Receptus.)[12]
This one is rather important since the pre-trib rapture is based off of the Koine Greek Translation from Paul and John's writings.
5. The translators of the KJV 1611 were relatively unfamiliar with Koine Greek.
Koine (“common”) Greek is the original language of the New Testament, but the KJV translators of the New Testament, who were accomplished scholars of Classical Greek, were relatively unfamiliar with Koine Greek. Koine Greek was not well-understood. Some people suggested it was a “Judaic” or “Hebraic” Greek.