Born of water and the Spirit is found in John 3:5, not born of baptism and the Spirit. John 3:5 has often been misused as if being born again is somehow the direct result of water baptism. It is assumed, without any proof whatsoever, that "water" signifies baptism. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds foolish, it is no more so than the idea that baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. What Jesus said in John 4:10,14; 7:37-39 fits perfectly with what He said John 3:5. 1 Corinthians 12:13 clearly states by one Spirit (not by H20) we were all baptized into one body.. So "water baptized" is not found in either John 3:5 or 1 Corinthians 12:13, that is plain re-writing of scripture.
Did Paul say "water" baptism in Ephesians 4:5? You are forced to believe this in order to accommodate your flawed theology.
Changing 1 Corinthians 12:13? Some kind of Spirit baptism? Are you completely blind? Read it again. 1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by ONE SPIRIT we were all baptized into one body.. "one" baptism in Ephesians 4:5 does not mean that there is only one baptism in scripture period. Hebrews 6:2 says baptisms (plural). Matthew 3:11 says I baptize you with 1. water for repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals; He will baptize you with the 2. Holy Spirit and 3. fire. Can you count? 1 Corinthians 10:2 says the Israelites were baptized into Moses. Literally water baptized into the body of Moses? NO! In Luke 12:50 says I have a baptism to be baptized with, and how distressed I am till it is accomplished! Was Jesus talking about water baptism here? NO! There is only ONE baptism that places us into the body of Christ and that is SPIRIT baptism, not water baptism.
Ephesians 4:5 - one Lord, one faith, one baptism.
1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body.. Are you seeing the light yet?
Amen! Yet previously you accused me of changing 1 Corinthians 12:13 in to some kind of Spirit baptism, yet you now admit that 1 Corinthians 12:13 refers to literal Spirit, yet you change "by one Spirit baptized into one body" into water baptism. Where does 1 Corinthians 12:13 mention water?
Jesus simply said "water" in John 3:5 (not baptism) and in John 4:14 Jesus said "water" and specified that this is "living water" (John 4:10,14) and connected it with everlasting life. Jesus also connected "living water" with the Holy Spirit in John 7:37-39, yet no mention of water baptism. So 1 Corinthians 12:13 speaks of literal immersion into the body of Christ by Spirit baptism, not water baptism. Once again, the natural man can only understand natural water.
The anti-salvation through faith in Christ crowd rejects "living water" and "Spirit baptism" thus they set out, using using bad exegesis, to re-write the Bible to get rid of living water from John 3:5 (which fits perfectly with John 4:10,14; 7:37-39) and Spirit baptism from 1 Corinthians 12:13, which fits perfectly with (Matthew 3:11; Acts 1:5; 11:16). You still need to learn the difference between water baptism and Spirit baptism. You can't see anything beyond your church of Christ indoctrination.
Did Paul say "water" baptism in Ephesians 4:5? You are forced to believe this in order to accommodate your flawed theology.
Changing 1 Corinthians 12:13? Some kind of Spirit baptism? Are you completely blind? Read it again. 1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by ONE SPIRIT we were all baptized into one body.. "one" baptism in Ephesians 4:5 does not mean that there is only one baptism in scripture period. Hebrews 6:2 says baptisms (plural). Matthew 3:11 says I baptize you with 1. water for repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals; He will baptize you with the 2. Holy Spirit and 3. fire. Can you count? 1 Corinthians 10:2 says the Israelites were baptized into Moses. Literally water baptized into the body of Moses? NO! In Luke 12:50 says I have a baptism to be baptized with, and how distressed I am till it is accomplished! Was Jesus talking about water baptism here? NO! There is only ONE baptism that places us into the body of Christ and that is SPIRIT baptism, not water baptism.
Ephesians 4:5 - one Lord, one faith, one baptism.
1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body.. Are you seeing the light yet?
Amen! Yet previously you accused me of changing 1 Corinthians 12:13 in to some kind of Spirit baptism, yet you now admit that 1 Corinthians 12:13 refers to literal Spirit, yet you change "by one Spirit baptized into one body" into water baptism. Where does 1 Corinthians 12:13 mention water?
Jesus simply said "water" in John 3:5 (not baptism) and in John 4:14 Jesus said "water" and specified that this is "living water" (John 4:10,14) and connected it with everlasting life. Jesus also connected "living water" with the Holy Spirit in John 7:37-39, yet no mention of water baptism. So 1 Corinthians 12:13 speaks of literal immersion into the body of Christ by Spirit baptism, not water baptism. Once again, the natural man can only understand natural water.
The anti-salvation through faith in Christ crowd rejects "living water" and "Spirit baptism" thus they set out, using using bad exegesis, to re-write the Bible to get rid of living water from John 3:5 (which fits perfectly with John 4:10,14; 7:37-39) and Spirit baptism from 1 Corinthians 12:13, which fits perfectly with (Matthew 3:11; Acts 1:5; 11:16). You still need to learn the difference between water baptism and Spirit baptism. You can't see anything beyond your church of Christ indoctrination.
The phrase "born of water" = water baptism. I can say someone was "born of water" or "water baptized", same thing.
And as I have shown umpteen times the phrase "born of water" of Jn 3:5 is equivalent to "baptized" if 1 Cor 12:13.
Bad exegesis is when you go to a remote text as Jn 7:38 where water is used figuratively then think you can apply that figurative meaning of water into any other text you so choose. There is NOTHING in the context of Jn 3:5 that shows water means anything other than literal water and spirit means anything other than literal spirit. In the context of Jn 3:5 just 18 verses later in verse 23 it speaks of literal water. Will you apply the figurative meaning of water of Jn 7:38 to Jn 3:23? No, because it does not help your position. But you are willing to jump all around over various contexts and apply that figurative meaning of water anywhere you can just to try and get rid of literal immersion in literal water, just to change the text to make it fit your theology. There is no exegetical reason for you doing this, it's just your bias.
In Jn 3:5, if water cannot be literal water then spirit cannot mean literal spirit. There is a consistent INCONSISTENCY people have about this and this inconsistency shows they are applying their theological bias to Jn 3:5.
Eph 4:5 does not say "water baptism" but it doe snot say "spirit baptism" either.
1) Proper exegesis is word is to be taken at its literal meaning, so "one baptizo" in Eph 4:5 means a literal immersion.
F.F. Bruce: “baptism in the New Testament is always baptism in water unless the context shows it to be something else; that is to say, the word is always to be understood literally unless the context indicates a figurative meaning” (Questions Answered, p. 106). Nothing in the context shows baptizo is being used figuratively.
2) Paul water baptized some of the Corinthians himself, 1 Cor 1:14,16. The baptism of Christ's great commission was human administered water baptism that lasts till the end of the world, Mt 28:19,20. So the one baptism of Jn 3:5 and 1 Cor 12:13 must be literal immersion in water.
3) 1 Cor 12:13 does say "For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body..."
a) when compared to Jn 3:5 we see that "baptized" of 1 Cor 12:13 is equivalent to "born of WATER" of Jn 3:5, ie, water baptism.
b) if 1 Cor 12:13 is some kind of spirit baptism then why is Paul WATER baptizing Corinthians in 1 Cor 1:14;16 and why did Jesus commission human administered WATER baptism?
c) Jn 4:1 "When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John,
v2 "(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)"
Verse 1 says Jesus baptized but v2 says Jesus baptized not. This is not a contradiction for Jesus baptized no one anyone personally, but He baptized by giving His authority to the disciples to baptize in His name. The Holy Spirit in 1 Cor 12:13 baptizes this same way as Christ. the Spirit does not baptize anyone personally but baptized by giving His authority to baptize within His word. So the Spirit water baptized those Coritnhians in 1 Cor 1:14.16 by having given His authority to Paul to water baptize them.
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