EG have you calmed down enough to answer this post?
Are you still claiming that Israel/Jerusalem was not called a harlot in the OT?
Then Ezekiel is a false prophet yes, when he talks to Jerusalem thus:
(Ezekiel 16:35) Wherefore, O harlot, hear the word of the LORD:
(Ezekiel 16:36) Thus saith the Lord GOD; Because thy filthiness was poured out, and thy nakedness discovered through thy whoredoms with thy lovers, and with all the idols of thy abominations, and by the blood of thy children, which thou didst give unto them;
???
Look again at the strongs concordance of what the word means:
HARLOT - H2181
זנה
zânâh
zaw-naw'
A primitive root (highly fed and therefore wanton); to commit adultery (usually of the female, and less often of simple forniciation, rarely of involuntary ravishment); figuratively to commit idolatry (the Jewish people being regarded as the spouse of Jehovah): - (cause to) commit fornication, X continually, X great, (be an, play the) harlot, (cause to be, play the) whore, (commit, fall to) whoredom, (cause to) go a-whoring, whorish.
Do you still claim a wife cannot be a harlot?
If you could just put aside your hatred for Catholics for just a second and answer this I'd be most gratified.