I can't speak to the motive for their leaving out that one verse.
However, I read their doing that to be to make a direct point supporting their prior premise. But that's me.
Whilst I agree one has to ask the question did Jesus leave out any verses from the OT to make his point? Not sure
But if we guote the Bible and leave out verse does that not look suspicious?
Quote the verses 8-10 and expand on verse nine.
Just a simple example for me
Romans 8:28-29
28 And we know that all things work together for good to those who love God, to those who are the called according to His purpose.
29 For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren.
Verse 29 is often not quoted when people are struggling as a result of past experiences.
Spent time with a person once who was raped and someone told quoted v28.
She felt that God would make good that happened and she would be healed and wasn't and still had the pain and hurt.
I said to her let's read av29.
God cannot make good of what has happened to you because it was evil. God will not make evil good.
But what he can and will do is work good in what has happened to you.
That will involve healing forgiveness and so on in order to be conformed to the image of Jesus and as result he will use you to help others he will give you who are going through what you did.
For me that's the good works that
Ephesians 2:10
10 For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them.
Jesus came in the flesh to set the prisoner free.
We are called to do the same.
My thoughts.