Question: Is There an Innerrant Bible?

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Jul 22, 2014
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If there is no perfect Word of God for today, then God's Word would have failed to have been preserved for us today. For if there is no perfect Word today that is available to us, then we cannot be held to a certain standard. We would not be able to trust every Word of God. For who determines which words are in the Bible if there is no final word of authority? Does God determine it or does man determine that? For Jesus said we will be judged by his words on the last day if we reject them.The Word of God is where we derive our faith. However, If the foundations be destroyed then how are we able to stand, though?

How do we determine the true Word of God? Jesus said you will know a tree by it's fruit. The KJV is the only Bible that has the best kind of fruit. All other versions have some kind of problem in some way.

Yes, many will say that Modern Versions do not change the Word of God enough to effect one's faith, but I beg to differ big time. I have run into people who have denied certain words in the King James in favor of OSAS (Once Saved Always Saved). I have had people defend that there is no Trinity because of a denial of 1 John 5:7. They prefer what they hear in History rather than just believing in the Word of God.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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If there is no perfect Word of God for today, then God's Word would have failed to have been preserved for us today. For if there is no perfect Word today that is available to us, then we cannot be held to a certain standard. We would not be able to trust every Word of God. For who determines which words are in the Bible if there is no final word of authority? Does God determine it or does man determine that? For Jesus said we will be judged by his words on the last day if we reject them.The Word of God is where we derive our faith. However, If the foundations be destroyed then how are we able to stand, though?

How do we determine the true Word of God? Jesus said you will know a tree by it's fruit. The KJV is the only Bible that has the best kind of fruit. All other versions have some kind of problem in some way.

Yes, many will say that Modern Versions do not change the Word of God enough to effect one's faith, but I beg to differ big time. I have run into people who have denied certain words in the King James in favor of OSAS (Once Saved Always Saved). I have had people defend that there is no Trinity because of a denial of 1 John 5:7. They prefer what they hear in History rather than just believing in the Word of God.
1 John 5.7 in KJV is unquestionably an interpolation. There is no serious way of defending it.

As for eternal security. KJV provides no problem for that. It is rooted in Scripture.

It is extraordinary that people can take up this attitude towards KJV. RV improved on many of its translations considerably.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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1 John 5.7 in KJV is unquestionably an interpolation. There is no serious way of defending it.
I can defend it. It's called having "faith." For faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God. For in many cases, if you do not believe a certain verse in the Bible is of God then you can forget about the blessings attached to those verses.

As for eternal security. KJV provides no problem for that. It is rooted in Scripture.

It is extraordinary that people can take up this attitude towards KJV. RV improved on many of its translations considerably.
Not true. The Bible speaks more against Eternal Security than anything else with it's many warnings to the believer. For we are to endure in the faith and to sow to the Spirit instead of the flesh. For if we sow to the flesh there is nothing but corruption and death. Paul says be not deceived, the unrighteous shall not inherit the Kingdom of God.
 
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jaybird88

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When metaphors become false misleading statements. . .
I dont think our Lord makes false misleading statements. if He says people were 100 ft tall i will believe. IMO i dont think metaphors should be used to make the bible mean whatever you want it to mean.
when the spies reported to Moses about the giants in Canaan no one seemed to correct them.
 
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Tintin

Guest
I dont think our Lord makes false misleading statements. if He says people were 100 ft tall i will believe. IMO i dont think metaphors should be used to make the bible mean whatever you want it to mean.
when the spies reported to Moses about the giants in Canaan no one seemed to correct them.
Look at who gave the report, the spies who didn't trust God and were killed for it. They gave into fear, they gave a false report. You can't take what they say as truth. The Bible records history, but it should be read from a grammatical/historical perspective. This allows for metaphoric language (of which there is much). This is one such metaphor. And again, the report is from spies who can't be trusted.
 
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jaybird88

Guest
Look at who gave the report, the spies who didn't trust God and were killed for it. They gave into fear, they gave a false report. You can't take what they say as truth. The Bible records history, but it should be read from a grammatical/historical perspective. This allows for metaphoric language (of which there is much). This is one such metaphor. And again, the report is from spies who can't be trusted.
i thought it was a bad/evil report but not false. evil because they would not believe the Lord would delver their enemies to them giants or no giants and they spread this fear among the people. Joshua and Caleb both wanted to fight and neither corrected the report if there were errors. they also had the giant thing of grapes that it took 2 men to carry.
but if it wasnt giants that struck fear into their hearts, i wonder what did?

but i get what you say, the spies cant be trusted making the passage hard to figure out.
 
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Tintin

Guest
i thought it was a bad/evil report but not false. evil because they would not believe the Lord would delver their enemies to them giants or no giants and they spread this fear among the people. Joshua and Caleb both wanted to fight and neither corrected the report if there were errors. they also had the giant thing of grapes that it took 2 men to carry.
but if it wasnt giants that struck fear into their hearts, i wonder what did?

but i get what you say, the spies cant be trusted making the passage hard to figure out.
Sorry, yes, you're right. My apologies. It was an evil report. But the spies' fear definitely caused them to embellish what they saw. They probably remembered hearing stories of the Nephilim from before the Flood and they made those 'giants' even more gigantic in their minds. I'm not saying their enemies weren't big men, they probably were mighty and fierce and rather tall, but they couldn't have been as tall as cedars.

For one It's physiologically impossible. This is because of the 'square-cube law'. For example, if a human were scaled up 10 times, his surface area and cross-section would be 100 (10 squared) times larger - so his bones and muscles would also be 100 times stronger. However, his volume would be 1,000 (10 cubed) times larger- and so will his mass and weight. So his muscles and bones would be far too weak to support his weight. A giant would need radical modifications to the entire body plan, making the bones much thicker, altering the circulatory system to allow for the greatly increased amount of blood flow required, and so on. The giant 'human' would not even be the same species as an average-sized human. The square-cube law has many other implications for the minimum and maximum size of body plans.

Creation magazine. Volume 37 No. 3 2015
From the article A Giant Hoax by Lita Cosner, p.56

Hope this helps.
 
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jaybird88

Guest
Sorry, yes, you're right. My apologies. It was an evil report. But the spies' fear definitely caused them to embellish what they saw. They probably remembered hearing stories of the Nephilim from before the Flood and they made those 'giants' even more gigantic in their minds. I'm not saying their enemies weren't big men, they probably were mighty and fierce and rather tall, but they couldn't have been as tall as cedars.

For one It's physiologically impossible. This is because of the 'square-cube law'. For example, if a human were scaled up 10 times, his surface area and cross-section would be 100 (10 squared) times larger - so his bones and muscles would also be 100 times stronger. However, his volume would be 1,000 (10 cubed) times larger- and so will his mass and weight. So his muscles and bones would be far too weak to support his weight. A giant would need radical modifications to the entire body plan, making the bones much thicker, altering the circulatory system to allow for the greatly increased amount of blood flow required, and so on. The giant 'human' would not even be the same species as an average-sized human. The square-cube law has many other implications for the minimum and maximum size of body plans.

Creation magazine. Volume 37 No. 3 2015
From the article A Giant Hoax by Lita Cosner, p.56

Hope this helps.
i agree with most what you say but also believe there is much more to this. i dont want to say anymore as i think we are starting to hijack th ethread and its not fair to the OP. i will try and start another thread in the conspiracy section being as some of this may be thought to be controversial.
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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In my my mind errant would mean the scriptures didn't correspond with the reality of what God said. If the scriptures today are not 100% true to the originally inspired scriptures they are not inerrant. If we have an inerrant Bible today there are no mistakes in it in comparison to the originals. And we do have an inerrant Bible in those terms. The KJV.
Ok good. We're progressing. So the baseline is that the autographs are inerrant. So now we need to clarify what "100% true to the originally inspired Scriptures" means.

I take it that you don't mean "100% true" means "identical", or we would not be reading the Bible in English. You must mean something beyond word for word indenticalism. So, what to you qualifies as "100% true to the originally inspired Scriptures", and how do you go about establishing that a given translation or version of the Scriptures meets the "100% true to the originally inspired Scriptures" criteria?
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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If there is no perfect Word of God for today, then God's Word would have failed to have been preserved for us today. For if there is no perfect Word today that is available to us, then we cannot be held to a certain standard. We would not be able to trust every Word of God. For who determines which words are in the Bible if there is no final word of authority? Does God determine it or does man determine that? For Jesus said we will be judged by his words on the last day if we reject them.The Word of God is where we derive our faith. However, If the foundations be destroyed then how are we able to stand, though?
Hi Jason. We've been on this rodeo together before :)

You make this point frequently, to which the only sensible response is: God's revelation of himself does not subsist in a word-by-word sense, and he has not promised, and indeed has not, preserved the original writings in the way you seem to think he has.

If he HAD, we would reasonablty expect to have either the originals (which could theoretically survived humanly speaking, and certainly could have survived had God wanted them to survive divinely speaking), or alternatively a single codex that incontrovertibly was a 1:1 copy of the original. We do not.

Instead, we have thousands of manuscripts that all disagree with each other, but from within which the authoritative text can be discerned to the earliest possible time. This is what modern textual critics do, that is what the KJV translators did, that is what Stephanus and Erasmus did. They did not transcribe from a single copy, but instead looked at various manuscripts in order to discern the original readings. Does a lack of a single authoritative manuscript square with what you expect God to have done re: preservation?

There is a troubling aspect of what you've said, though. To hide behind "For if there is no perfect [by which I assume you mean verbatim accurate] Word today that is available to us, then we cannot be held to a certain standard. " is like telling your parents you weren't sure whether they said "Do not eat the cookies out of the jar" or "I am telling you to not permit yourself to eat the cookies in the glass container", so therefore you can't be held accountable for eating the cookies. The vast majorities of 'problems' in the text are of this sort. The few that are not do not effect how you should live, or even any doctrine, but simply what we can say Scripture affirmatively says. The foundations are not nearly as shaky as you seem to think they are, and doesn't have anything to do with what the original text said anyway.

How do we determine the true Word of God? Jesus said you will know a tree by it's fruit. The KJV is the only Bible that has the best kind of fruit. All other versions have some kind of problem in some way.
Completely subjective argument that has nothing to do with what the original texts actually said, and everything to do with what you personally think is 'good fruit'. Besides, Jesus saying has nothing to do with assessing the quality of a version of Scripture and everything to do with assessing actual people. Specious prooftexting, I'm afraid. And as I said to Andrew, you can only say something is a 'problem' if you are comparing it to something you have already decided is 'correct', and so it's nigh impossible to avoid putting the cart before the horse if you argue that way.

Yes, many will say that Modern Versions do not change the Word of God enough to effect one's faith, but I beg to differ big time. I have run into people who have denied certain words in the King James in favor of OSAS (Once Saved Always Saved). I have had people defend that there is no Trinity because of a denial of 1 John 5:7. They prefer what they hear in History rather than just believing in the Word of God.
You realise a great many people who translated and who used the KJV were Calvinists, right? George Abbot, who was Archbishop of Canterbury and head of the Church of England shortly before the publishing of the AV, was a translator on the KJV and a Calvinist. John Whitgift, another. John Reynolds, a Puritan with a very Reformed soteriology, was one of the key people on the translation project. Miles Smith, Christopher Goodman, Coverdale, Knox, Samson, these were all Reformed theologians and clergy.

Post the reign of Mary I which ended in the mid 1500s, the Church of England was broadly speaking a Calvinist one following the English Reformation. Ironically, during this period one of the main ecclesiological struggles was actually between the Puritans and the Calvinist bishops, who were both Reformed theologically but had wildly varying ecclesiological ideas. Even today, you can find people who defend KJVO like positions precisely BECAUSE they see it as a Reformed text, rather than because it isn't. I've spoken to people who defend the KJV on the basis that "any person with a true Reformed theology and believes in eternal security SHOULD only read the KJV."

All of which is to say - it's not possible to make a case that the KJV is anti-eternal security, unless you read your own biases so far into the text that you're not actually reading the text anymore, but making the text parrot back your own ideas. I think your argument at this point has much more to do with one's own theological presuppositions than the text, because I can find people who are just as KJVO as you but have a completely Calvinist soteriology, while you don't.
 

Andrew1

Senior Member
May 11, 2013
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Ok good. We're progressing. So the baseline is that the autographs are inerrant. So now we need to clarify what "100% true to the originally inspired Scriptures" means.

I take it that you don't mean "100% true" means "identical", or we would not be reading the Bible in English. You must mean something beyond word for word indenticalism. So, what to you qualifies as "100% true to the originally inspired Scriptures", and how do you go about establishing that a given translation or version of the Scriptures meets the "100% true to the originally inspired Scriptures" criteria?
Obviously no King James Bible believer means identical to the originals in regards to inerrancy ie) in the same language, font, spelling, etc... Inerrancy simply means that there were no mistakes when they translated it from one language into another. It's accurate and without error it agrees 100% with the originals. I think where your trying to go is how can a translation be inerrant? Well ask Luke, he translated the inerrant words Paul spoke in Hebrew into Greek in the inerrant scriptures in Acts 22. There are many examples of this throughout the scriptures.
 
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Tintin

Guest
Obviously no King James Bible believer means identical to the originals in regards to inerrancy ie) in the same language, font, spelling, etc... Inerrancy simply means that there were no mistakes when they translated it from one language into another. It's accurate and without error it agrees 100% with the originals. I think where your trying to go is how can a translation be inerrant? Well ask Luke, he translated the inerrant words Paul spoke in Hebrew into Greek in the inerrant scriptures in Acts 22. There are many examples of this throughout the scriptures.
I'm not sure you understand how Bible translation works.
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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Obviously no King James Bible believer means identical to the originals in regards to inerrancy ie) in the same language, font, spelling, etc... Inerrancy simply means that there were no mistakes when they translated it from one language into another. It's accurate and without error it agrees 100% with the originals. I think where your trying to go is how can a translation be inerrant? Well ask Luke, he translated the inerrant words Paul spoke in Hebrew into Greek in the inerrant scriptures in Acts 22. There are many examples of this throughout the scriptures.
Happy to come to the specifics of this post later if you like, but I'm still trying to work out exactly what you mean. We've circled around to 'mistakes' again, but I'm not quite sure what you mean by that in a translation sense. You obviously don't mean 'different', because we're both agreed translation by its very nature means things are different and not 'word-for-word', so you must mean something more than 'different'. So what would count as a mistake? Would it be something that's possible at a word for word level, or at a sentence level, paragraph level?

I ask these questions because inevitably when these discussions about 'errant' translations come up with KJV only advocates (and this is translation philosophy rather than textual criticism at this point), the problems are with specific word choices that don't actually have anything to do with the meaning of the text and everything to do with specific words, which often change meaning, or are more opaque, and simply don't work to maintain the same overall meaning anymore in a different language context. This is a problem because it operates on a very narrow view of language and meaning that actually has very little to do with how people understand texts on their own terms and a lot more to do with an ideological or theological presupposition.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Atheists (who are uninformed) like to poke holes in God's Word because they think unicorns are in reference to the mythological beast. But it really doesn't work. Actually, it is a word that is in reference to any one horned animal. For "unicorns" is even a word that is used by Science today (And they are not talking about the mythological horse like creature). Here is a Science book on unicorns.
no sane zoologist uses the word "unicorns" to describe anything but a mythological creature. we have words like "gnu" and "rhinoceros" and "eland" and "auroch"

i'm not "poking holes in God's Word" and i'm certainly not an atheist. i just wanted to point out that the best translation for "Re'em" is probably not "unicorn" as the KJV decided to put it.
if there is a better translation for a word, then the KJV is not "perfect" in the way that its adorers make it out to be.

that book you linked a cover photo of, does it describe a taxonomic creature just as the mythological "unicorn" or does it present the case that many other two-horned animals (which have their own names) if seen from the side appear to have one horn, and compare the rhinoceros etc?
because saying "unicorn may refer to one of these other animals" is not the same as saying "unicorns are real animals different from all these other animals"

if you wanna say "rhinoceros" than you've still got technically an issue with the "inerrant perfection" of the language in the KJV, because it doesn't say "rhinoceros" -- arguing that it refers to something else is apologizing for it, not justifying it.

i just think we ought to be realistic.
 
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tanach

Guest
Andrew 1 Does that mean that any English Bible read before 1611 was not accurate? Going back much further there are hundreds of New Testament fragments found that vary slightly due to copyist errors. Are they inerrant as well?
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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The discussion on unicorns is a red herring. Whatever animal the re'em/monokeros is, it was never originally what we think of as a mythic unicorn, and most likely the KJV translators didn't mean it in that sense either. Deuteronomy uses the word to indicate an animal of two horns. Could maybe a rhino, but then it's not clear that people in the time of Moses would know what a rhino is (we don't have any evidence of rhino now, or of it being a none creature at the time period in that region), so it seems more likely to be some other kind of ox type animal (which also finds help with the use of the term at Job 39, and in other aramaic literature).

It's really a fruitless discussion. Atheists are dumb when they poke holes in it, mostly because they don't know about the Greek speaking background to the KJV's use of the term, but it's equally silly to try and defend the word unicorn in a modern context (for obvious reasons - unicorns don't exist, and the original hebrew almost certainly indicates neither a one-horned horse or a rhinoceros), and it's also silly to attack the KJV for its use of the term (which didn't have the same connotation re: mythical horse creatures as it does now). It's a linguistic curiosity, but it's not destructive for the KJV if its read in its 17th century context, and not a 21st one.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Originally Posted by valiant
1 John 5.7 in KJV is unquestionably an interpolation. There is no serious way of defending it.
I can defend it. It's called having "faith." For faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God. For in many cases, if you do not believe a certain verse in the Bible is of God then you can forget about the blessings attached to those verses.
LOL that's funny coming from the 'faith is not enough' Jason.

Not a single Greek manuscript prior to 16th century AD contained 1 John 5.7. The 16th century Greek manuscript which does contain it was written for the occasion. It was written solely for the purpose of introducing it so that Erasmus would put it in his greek text. (He had promised to do so if a GREEK MS INCLUDING IT COULD BE PRODUCED).

At least it shows us all on what an unsound basis you base all your views.
 
May 11, 2013
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Glad your a King James Bible believer, I don't think I really agree with everything you said but I'm not going to fight you. I would just caution against using modern versions to help you understand the King James Bible at least be careful when doing it, I think that has the potential to lead to error. But I'm glad were on the same team :)
I AM ALSO ON THE SAME TEAM :rolleyes::rolleyes:
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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The discussion on unicorns is a red herring. Whatever animal the re'em/monokeros is, it was never originally what we think of as a mythic unicorn, and most likely the KJV translators didn't mean it in that sense either. Deuteronomy uses the word to indicate an animal of two horns. Could maybe a rhino, but then it's not clear that people in the time of Moses would know what a rhino is (we don't have any evidence of rhino now, or of it being a none creature at the time period in that region), so it seems more likely to be some other kind of ox type animal (which also finds help with the use of the term at Job 39, and in other aramaic literature).

It's really a fruitless discussion. Atheists are dumb when they poke holes in it, mostly because they don't know about the Greek speaking background to the KJV's use of the term, but it's equally silly to try and defend the word unicorn in a modern context (for obvious reasons - unicorns don't exist, and the original hebrew almost certainly indicates neither a one-horned horse or a rhinoceros), and it's also silly to attack the KJV for its use of the term (which didn't have the same connotation re: mythical horse creatures as it does now). It's a linguistic curiosity, but it's not destructive for the KJV if its read in its 17th century context, and not a 21st one.

that's the thing here, mate. i'm not an atheist. i believe the Bible is the word of God, and the last copy of it i bought is actually an authorized KJV.
what you're admitting is my point; that in some cases the best translation that someone in 1611 could come up with is not the right translation, especially in the context of 400 years of development in the English language and scholarship understanding what was meant by some archaic Aramaic and Greek words.

i'm not 'poking holes' in the scripture or even trying to. i'm just hoping to point out that the KJV is not 100% perfect in every way shape and form. if it was, you'd be telling me "the unicorn is a real creature!" instead of "yes in retrospect that word probably means a different animal but 'unicorn' is the best translation they could come up with at the time"

:)
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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look at it this way:

say we want to translate the scripture into Urdu, so that people whose native language is Urdu can read the scripture in their own language.

of course, we want to make the most literal and accurate translation we can, treating the Word with all respect, so that those who read it in Urdu are not in any way mislead by human error or doctrinal bias.

so what should be our primary source?

is the wisest thing to take a KJV and go word-for-word, translating the Victorian English into Urdu?
or should we be looking at Greek and Hebrew manuscripts?