ROMANS 1

[J7]

I know, you're still refusing context for your point.



I'd put forward that Romans 1:16 is more in that position than 1:8. Brother, there is no need to imply that I don't understand a verse, that is quite an underhanded remark. I have been quite forward about your mistake: Romans 1:16 is not saying what you are making it to say. This has been clearly shown you.



Actually they were already under judgment.



Seriously? That is descriptive of exactly what you've been doing all along! Thus some have sought to correct you on your insistence that the epistle is primarily for the Jews when Paul said none of this whatsoever, nor has it ever been implied.



See? There you go, by your own rule, and breaking it, "pinning Paul down to one thing."

Brother, with all due respect, none of Rom,ans 1:16 proves your point, and it isn't there. Not going another round with you on this as even your own rules show yourself to be the one breaking them.

You can get your last word in, there is no need to convince a man with proper Scripture context as when doing so would only serve to convince him against his own will.

Why debate discuss and argue with me if you have no intention of listening to my response? Makes no sense.

 

[followjesus]

@followJesus

No, it really was written to the Jews primarily, that is to say, as I already said, as the primary focus. Of course it has great importance to the Nations as well, but when it was written, it was primarily to the Jews; 'to the Jew first'

not at all, you are missung the Fact that there is no difference in Jew and gentile, thats why it addresses both Paul is addressing the Church as He always is, no one was preaching to only jew or only gentile theres only the church whether Jew, or gentile.

and Paul near the end says this

romans 15:18 "For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,"


Paul, Preached to all peaople, th roman church already had both Jew and gentile before paul ever wrote romans. its why it is addressed to both Jew and Gentile. Jew was first because of the first covenant, and the fact that Jesus came to the nation of Israel first, the thing is though He then commandend those jews to Go preach the exact same things to the World. to all nations whether Jew or gentile. matthew 28:18-20. Peter also preached to gentiles just after sauls conversion.

the Only people who still considered Jews seperate from gentiles....were the Jews. its One of pauls early struggles most of His persecution came because He was teaching this

Galatians 3:27-29 "For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. 27For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. 28There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. 29And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise."

this was offensive to the Jews because the Law was a seperatist religion, it was specifically for Israel both Judah and all the 12 tribes of israel. the Law was written specifically to them yes, and it still has great value to us.....everything from the Gospel forward is specifically for anyone who will believe. sure paul talks of Jewish concepts but Hes not only speaking to Jews, its all meant for the body of Christ.

1 corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.


there is nothing in the nt thats not meant for christians the same as a jewish christian. neither are more than the other in Christ, all who believe are Gods people and He no longer makes distinction. The same things he would tell a jewish person, he would tell a gentile. its all the same from Matthew 1:1 to the last verse in revelation.

 

[followjesus]

@followJesus

No, it really was written to the Jews primarily, that is to say, as I already said, as the primary focus. Of course it has great importance to the Nations as well, but when it was written, it was primarily to the Jews; 'to the Jew first'

what are you basing the ides that its written primarily to one Group when all are One in Christ? what makes you think its more specifically to Jews? honestly asking what leads you to that conclusion that is in the epistle? paul continually addresses both Jew and gentile in the letter itself, which sort of makes plain to me anyways that its addressed to the church both jew and gentile. all the message paul spoke of Jew and gentile being One is simply a fulfillment of what Jesus said

john 10:16 "And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: ( Gentiles) them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd."


and that was a fulfillment of Isaih 49 particularly v 6-7 " it is to small a thing for you to bring israel back to me, i will also give you for a light to the gentiles that you may be my salvations to the ends of the earth"

there ebven today is no difference in a jewish christian, and a gentile christian. there was no difference then. apostate Jews as you argue this is written to, would not have been in the church in the first place if they were apostate. its written specifically to Christian men, women, slave , free, black, white, Jewish Non Jewish...in fact Jewish is not even deifned the same any longer in the book of romans

to be a "jew" is to be One inwarldy. has nothing to do with thier bloodline anymore, or thier customs, it has to do with the One Faith if a person is in Christ, they are One with His Body and Jesus was a Jew there is no dividing jew and gentile christians.

 

[J7]

Yes, these are new covenant rules, but the Jews were being dealt with under the Old Covenant, which is what the Book of Romans is all about, apostate Jewry.

In one very major sense, they are also the audience, though obviously not exclusively.

not at all, you are missung the Fact that there is no difference in Jew and gentile, thats why it addresses both Paul is addressing the Church as He always is, no one was preaching to only jew or only gentile theres only the church whether Jew, or gentile.

and Paul near the end says this

romans 15:18 "For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,"


Paul, Preached to all peaople, th roman church already had both Jew and gentile before paul ever wrote romans. its why it is addressed to both Jew and Gentile. Jew was first because of the first covenant, and the fact that Jesus came to the nation of Israel first, the thing is though He then commandend those jews to Go preach the exact same things to the World. to all nations whether Jew or gentile. matthew 28:18-20. Peter also preached to gentiles just after sauls conversion.

the Only people who still considered Jews seperate from gentiles....were the Jews. its One of pauls early struggles most of His persecution came because He was teaching this

Galatians 3:27-29 "For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. 27For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. 28There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. 29And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise."

this was offensive to the Jews because the Law was a seperatist religion, it was specifically for Israel both Judah and all the 12 tribes of israel. the Law was written specifically to them yes, and it still has great value to us.....everything from the Gospel forward is specifically for anyone who will believe. sure paul talks of Jewish concepts but Hes not only speaking to Jews, its all meant for the body of Christ.

1 corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.


there is nothing in the nt thats not meant for christians the same as a jewish christian. neither are more than the other in Christ, all who believe are Gods people and He no longer makes distinction. The same things he would tell a jewish person, he would tell a gentile. its all the same from Matthew 1:1 to the last verse in revelation.