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I understand, feedbuddy, these are just your questions, and, , as I've said before to you, too, I appreciate your more compassionate approach to debate , but God, too, appreciates the way you've spoken much less easily angered to others in presenting your strong views, which I MOSTLY agree with, good buddy feedenem
New questions :
Did the spiritual gifts of prophecy, etc. begin in Acts 2 ?
Did the spiritual gifts of prophecy, etc. begin in Acts 2 ?
Jesus promised the Apostles (Jn 14-16) the HS would come upon them and guide them into all truth.
In Acts 1, they did not fully understand Jesus' purpose, even after being with him so long:
2 Until the day in which he was taken up, after that he through the Holy Ghost had given commandments unto the apostles whom he had chosen: 3 To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God: 4 And, being assembled together with them, commanded them that they should not depart from Jerusalem, but wait for the promise of the Father, which, saith he, ye have heard of me. 5 For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.
What is the "promise of the Father" the Apostles were to wait in Jerasalem for? - It was the promise of the HS given to them in John 14 and 16. This was not a promise to all mankind, but limited to the Apostles.
6 When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?
They thought Christ was here to literally take the kingdom of Israel from Rome's power, and restore back to Israel. They did not understand what kingdom Christ would restore, as many still do not today.
7 And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. 8 But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth
This "power" they were to receive was the HS, enabling them to speak with tounges, and understand all things, seen in Acts 2.
Acts chapter 2 is when this promise is fulfilled:
1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. 2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. 3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance
"Them" is still only referring to the Apostles.
This "power" came upon them, and they were filled with the Spirit, enabling speaking of Tounges etc.
This also fullfilled Joel 2, which said in these last days(of the law) God would "pour out his spirit upon all flesh" (All flesh meaning Jew and Gentile).14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words: 15 For these are not drunken, as ye suppose, seeing it is but the third hour of the day. 16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; 17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams: 18 And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy
If Peter says "This is what was spoken by Joel", and it was them speaking in tounges and prophecying, then it must have started then on that day. Otherwise it would not have been the fulfillment of Joel 2:28-f.
What does the word 'truth' refer to in verse 7 of 1 Cor. 13?
Spirit of truth - Holy Spirit - Jn 14:17
Holy Spirit guiding the writers of the NT, so we have the word of truth, unified, and able to make us perfect, because it is infallible perfect word of God.
If this is supposed to turn the context into speaking of Christ, the fore verse 13 must be Christ, I dont see the logic in that, seeing truth coming from Jesus would not change the neuter form "that" into Christ. It just doesnt work, and is against the context.
How does the Greek word for 'perfect, called 'telios' support your argument, Christ peeps?
As Paul says, "in part". It all fits perfect (lol like my choice of words here?).
Why does 'the perfect come' mean completion of canon of Scripture? Why is this logical thought in the whole context of 1 Cor. 13. ?To me, it's not logical, unless you can show me where 'the perfect' specifically refers to Scripture being 'the perfect.'
1. Only something that is perfect can make something else perfect:
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works
If all scripture is profitable to make the man of God perfect, then the scripture itself must be perfect.
2. Where do we find the will of God so we can know?
Answer: The Bible:
If true then:
Rom 6:2 And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God
Would Paul capitalize 'perfect' referring to that word as Christ.
Are verses referred to as 'perfection' anywhere else in the bible?
Is Paul saying that ONLY with love (His Love given to us, NOT our own) can one excercise spiritual gifts? Read chapter 13:2, then, 14:1 , then 14:5, then 14:12. What word is the theme of these four verses?
Thanks Green
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