That's because imminency is derived from cross-referencing and comparing scripture as a word to describe the reportive meaning of what is being said. I'll use the previous example:
"This is the revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants what must soon come to pass."
The things that must soon take place was spoken by the Lord 1900 years ago and have yet to take place. Therefore what is your conclusion to the meaning of "must soon take place" in respect to the fact that those events have not yet been fulfilled?
What if the OT prophet's reference to "is near" and "soon to come" was according to God's time frame? A day with the Lord is as a thousand years and a thousand years as a day.
Imminency is the word we use to describe what is being revealed by the use of those words which have not yet taken place according to the current reportive meaning. You are therefore not going to find some scripture that says "the day of the Lord is near and to the reader remember that this refers to imminency."
If you'll notice, any time that the words "is near" and "is coming" there is never a definite time associated with the prophecy. You also have to remember that the OT prophets only spoke what they were given to speak. It doesn't mean that they had full knowledge of when the event would take place, but just that it would.
When Isaiah prophesied to king Ahaz saying, "the Lord himself will give you a sign. A virgin will conceive and bring forth a Son and his name will be called Immanuel." That prophesy was give six or seven hundred years before Mary gave birth to Jesus, but neither king Ahaz nor those with him observed that sign. Therefore it was directed to those who would be reading the scroll of Isaiah and who be the generation that would see the prophecy fulfilled.
"This is the revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants what must soon come to pass."
The things that must soon take place was spoken by the Lord 1900 years ago and have yet to take place. Therefore what is your conclusion to the meaning of "must soon take place" in respect to the fact that those events have not yet been fulfilled?
What if the OT prophet's reference to "is near" and "soon to come" was according to God's time frame? A day with the Lord is as a thousand years and a thousand years as a day.
Imminency is the word we use to describe what is being revealed by the use of those words which have not yet taken place according to the current reportive meaning. You are therefore not going to find some scripture that says "the day of the Lord is near and to the reader remember that this refers to imminency."
If you'll notice, any time that the words "is near" and "is coming" there is never a definite time associated with the prophecy. You also have to remember that the OT prophets only spoke what they were given to speak. It doesn't mean that they had full knowledge of when the event would take place, but just that it would.
When Isaiah prophesied to king Ahaz saying, "the Lord himself will give you a sign. A virgin will conceive and bring forth a Son and his name will be called Immanuel." That prophesy was give six or seven hundred years before Mary gave birth to Jesus, but neither king Ahaz nor those with him observed that sign. Therefore it was directed to those who would be reading the scroll of Isaiah and who be the generation that would see the prophecy fulfilled.
