also nonsense.
Galatians 3:19 tells us explicitly that "
The Law was added because of transgression" - - by saying "
added" the Law cannot exist in eternity past, and furthermore if Psalm 119:160 says the Law is eternal then you imply sin is eternal too, equal to God, because the law is a reaction to sin, not a precursor to it.
But that isn't what the verse says:
Psalms 119:160
The entirety of Your word [is] truth, And every one of Your righteous judgments [endures] forever.
it says His judgements endure forever.
God's nature is eternal and sin is what is contrary to God's nature, so sin is therefore also eternal. For as long God's nature has eternally existed, there has also existed a way to act in accordance with or contrary to His nature, and that way is defined through His law. Sin is the transgression of God's law (1 John 3:4), so sin can't exist prior to when there was a law to transgress. Sin was in the word before the law was given (Romans 5:13), so people were able to sin by acting in a way that is contrary to God's nature before they had been instructed laws to refrain from doing that, and the same is true of Galatians 3:19.
In Psalms 119:160, it uses the Hebrew word "mishpatim", which refers to the category of laws in regard to righteousness and justice. In other words, God's righteousness is eternal (Psalms 119:142), so the way to act in accordance with God's righteousness, is therefore also eternal (Psalms 119:160). Sin is what is contrary to God's nature, so unrighteousness is sin. The Bible often uses the same terms to describe aspects of the nature of God' as it does to describe aspects of the nature of God's law, such as with it being holy, righteous, and good (Romans 7:12), or with justice, mercy, and faithfulness being weightier matters of the law (Matthew 23:23), which again is because it is God's eternal instructions for how to divide between what is in accordance with or contrary to His eternal nature.
nonsense, as previously discussed.
Joseph is not under the Law. the introduction of the Law does not change righteousness nor does the passing away of it.
Calling it nonsense is not a counterargument. There were no actions that become in accordance with or contrary to God's righteousness when the law was given, but rather the law revealed what has always been and will always be the way to do that. Jospeh knew that is was a sin against God to commit adultery, so he must have been taught a law against doing that which he was obligated to obey.
because the Christian has died, and their life is hidden in Christ - therefore the believer is not under law at all, which only applies so long as a man lives.
it's called salvation.
Jesus died for a reason.
Christ walked in obedience to God's law, and in 1 John 2:6, those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked. In other words, the way to be unified with God's word made flesh is by obeying God's word, not by rejecting it. In Titus 2:14, it does not say that Jesus gave himself t redeem us from God's law, but in order to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so becoming zealous for doing good works in obedience to God's law is the way to believe in what Jesus accomplished through the cross (Acts 21:20).
In Romans 6:14, it describes the law that we are not under as being a law where sin had dominion over us, which does not describe the Law of God, which is a law where holiness, righteousness, goodness, justice, mercy, and faithfulness have dominion over us, but rather it is the law of sin where sin had dominion over us. In Romans 6:15, being under grace does not mean that we are permitted to sin, and sin is the transgression of the Law of God (1 John 3:4), so we are still under it. Moreover, everything else in Romans 6 speaks in favor of obedience to the Law of God and against sin. So we need to die to the law of sin in order to be free to obey the Law of God, not the other way around.