I stated to my opponent that there is no direct command that says something like, "Thou shalt use the KJV-only in English-speaking churches." However, I do believe the Bible does affirm to us this fact indirectly. Meaning, the Bible implies strongly in two verses that there is one Word of God. This one Word is perfect, and has taken different forms through history (Hebrew, (incomplete) Greek, Latin, and English), and will continue to last forever (according to Scripture). My two points in Scripture help us to identify God's Word today (Just as the Latin-speaking Christians would have identified their perfect Bible at one point in time before the KJV). In helping to further back up these two points in Scripture (in further identifying this Word), I have supporting evidence in three specific categories.
Its like the Trinity. Does the Bible mandate you to exclusively worship the Trinity? No, not directly, but I believe it does so indirectly.
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Its like the Trinity. Does the Bible mandate you to exclusively worship the Trinity? No, not directly, but I believe it does so indirectly.
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I see. Okay. Appreciate the above quoted explanation.
I bookmarked the video. I will probably watch it.