The King James Only Debate

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
One thing I can guarantee is no new version will enhance any knowledge out of the word of God from the KJV. Guaranteed!

that's ok. Someone who has been a lifelong NASB user will be enhanced in their knowledge of god by reading the KJV. Guaranteed.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
Ik the reason why you brought up Erasmus & Tischendorf , but you have brought them up first, which is ok bc thats why we debate. Point im making is that the TR came from protestants bc it was revised so many times more than just Erasmus who was fond of opposing the Catholics. These new Greek editions are def catholic origin,but not even that, they are complete forgeries.

I mean corrupted texts that they do nor say what God had intended them to originally mean. They got 1/4 of the whole bible missing what are you suppose to do with that? Then they add it into bible and deceive people to go along with it. Something built on a lie is already corrupted.
You try to simplify things too much.

I will ignore the historical debate about Erasmus, versions of TR etc, because it is fruitless and everybody can use google and find out the facts.

To your question:

"They got 1/4 of the whole bible missing what are you suppose to do with that?"

Its hard to say what you are meaning by "they". The codex sinaiticus?

If so, the response is - do not think you can compare one codex with the critical edition of multiple codexes like TR, Byzantine Majority Text, NA27 or Tischendorf.

In every manuscript some parts are missing, wrong, destroyed etc. Its not any "devilish" and deceiving intentional corruption, its just the work of time.

Thats why we need textual criticism to reconstruct the text by comparing as many manuscripts as possible.
 
Last edited:

The_Bible

Senior Member
Nov 11, 2016
139
1
18
You try to simplify things too much.

I will ignore the historical debate about Erasmus, versions of TR etc, because it is fruitless and everybody can use google and find out the facts.

To your question:

"They got 1/4 of the whole bible missing what are you suppose to do with that?"

Its hard to say what you are meaning by "they". The codex sinaiticus?

If so, the response is - do not think you can compare one codex with the critical edition of multiple codexes like TR, Byzantine Majority Text, NA27 or Tischendorf.

In every manuscript some parts are missing, wrong, destroyed etc. Its not any "devilish" and deceiving intentional corruption, its just the work of time.

Thats why we need textual criticism to reconstruct the text by comparing as many manuscripts as possible.
The Sinaiticus is the Tischendorf one, and why do all that hard work to compare and contrast when they 95% percent of the time do not agree with each other. Notice how all of them are catholic codexes when we already have the original greek texts. Is simple but ya make it dificult.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,861
13,463
113
...
You seem to imply KJV had added verses then how do you explain bibles that uses the Sinaiticus with 1/4 of the Bible missing?
Instead of flinging back accusations, how about responding carefully and honestly to the charge that the KJV added verses? You made the assertion that newer versions took away verses, and I have explained clearly how the charge is baseless without an external source against which to compare both the KJV and the newer Bibles. So... get some intellectual integrity and deal with the issue properly, instead of with silly blustering, avoiding, and bringing up other issues. Stop using this burden-of-proof reversal and back up your claims, or retract them.

Regarding Sinaiticus missing part of the Bible, I haven't read anywhere that anyone has claimed it is complete. Your point is moot.
 

The_Bible

Senior Member
Nov 11, 2016
139
1
18
Instead of flinging back accusations, how about responding carefully and honestly to the charge that the KJV added verses? You made the assertion that newer versions took away verses, and I have explained clearly how the charge is baseless without an external source against which to compare both the KJV and the newer Bibles. So... get some intellectual integrity and deal with the issue properly, instead of with silly blustering, avoiding, and bringing up other issues. Stop using this burden-of-proof reversal and back up your claims, or retract them.

Regarding Sinaiticus missing part of the Bible, I haven't read anywhere that anyone has claimed it is complete. Your point is moot.
What accusations? I gave the statement and provided the undeniable proof that it is missing verses, chapters, books of the bible. So what other way is there to deal with the situation? Your the one saying the KJV added verses when it didnt snd havent shown anything to support it, hypocrite much?
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
2,538
113
One thing I can guarantee is no new version will enhance any knowledge out of the word of God from the KJV. Guaranteed!
You are entitled to your opinion. It is worth no more than anyone else's opinion but that's ok.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
I would like to see how any "mainstream" translation (other than KJV) has changed/perverted/corrupted ANY denomination.

In fact, I would like to see how any mainstream translation (other than KJV) has changed/perverted/corrupted any one believer....

you KJV only-ists are making mountains out of, well.. NOTHING, actually.
true! and many strange groups were started using the kjv, like the JW's.
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
1,051
113
No modern translation can be inerrant. The best of them are drawn from partial fragmented original manuscripts. Missing sections from one filled in with fragments from another from a similar time period.

Stop fearing newer translations and use them to strengthen what you have learned. Stay with the KJV but do not make it more than it is. Any honest researcher studies more than one test subject if he is to ascertain the truth.

You can cease with the red herrings as in which word the translators used for a given Greek word only illustrates my point. They are all translations and not original manuscripts. Unless you can find a manuscript written by the original writer you at best have a copy.

Here is where your faith in God comes into play. We believe that God preserved His word for us to have today. We can only speculate as to whether it is complete or not. We can trust that it is sufficient that we can be made wise unto salvation.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
yes, use more than one test subject.

the value of using multiple versions is that you have the testimony of two or three witnesses going for you.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113
Thanks for pointing that out. Glad you noticed.

The issue here is not that we should not use outside sources because they are not inspired and they are not inspired. The issue here is that to interpret the bible we must define the words translated and even consider what the translators used in translating our bible from the original manuscripts into our modern language.

I wholeheartedly agree that the bible interprets itself but it cannot define itself. I have read the old KJV long enough to be able to understand the archaic English that is used therein. I have often found it necessary to research the definitions of the old words that were commonly known and accepted centuries ago.

The fact remains that declaring any repeat any translation as inspired is idiotic. God has blessed and used the KJV for many centuries but it is and always will be just a translation of the original manuscripts. Good as it is or poor as it may be God has blessed it and it has been used of God to harvest many souls for the kingdom of God.

If we spent as much time teaching John 3:16 to the world as we do arguing over bible translations well I suspect the results would be tangible.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
Yea and by your own admission Lexicons or dictionaries are not inspired. I see it differently as far as the discussion is concerned. It’s not about Biblical Hermeneutics; it’s more than just that. It’s about how the Bible came to us, more so on the Doctrine of Bibliology.

The Bible interprets itself, that’s good but there are times difficult words in the Bible has define itself long before good dictionaries like OED, Webster Dictionary defines them

It is a must battle cry of every Bible Believer as per discussion is that God’s word is pure, preserved and “is given by the inspiration of God”. I do believe, the KJV is given to us by inspiration. If not, then God lie. He can’t keep His promise. But why be afraid to call KJV is given by inspiration when in fact you do find using it. I see your concern; you are trying to do a police work. But there is no middle ground when it comes to words of God. Any sort of mental reservations does no good in God’s eye. You see, God is the God of truth and man is a liar so we cannot change the truth, the truth is God’s words not a mere man opinion. The fact still remain that KJV is written scriptures and if it is scriptures, it is the words of God therefore it is “given by inspiration of God and is profitable…”

I do believe that preservation extend not only the copies of the originals that was read by young Timothy. Preservation of the words of God extends to us today. The extent of preservation is not just the original language. It goes to the translation. Every word precisely translated is God’s word. Translated/ transliterated words is/are God’s words. The originals are no longer with us. A repetitive declaration that KJV is a translation of the original manuscripts is not true. In front of the title of the KJV says, it is “translated out of the original tongue, diligently compared…”

That’s right we are not talking about salvation in here. There’s no room for us to judge others about their salvation. It is with a hope that we are all saved here and we can know for sure…seems you’re quite correct here about winning more souls for Christ and I say Praise the Lord! Amen! Alleluia! But there are times we need to defend the words of God. King Solomon says “there is a time for everything”

God bless
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113

If I am preaching one version over any other. And saying this is the ONLY version and all others are satanic, or evil. I belong to a cult.

If I think the KJV is the best version. And it is my version of choice. But would not judge anyone who disagreed, Then I am just person who would rather use the KJV, but not a cult
Hi Sir,

Okay, I see your point. But historically does not fit what you are trying to draw. Wescott and Hort and others founded the” ghostly guild” to do just the opposite and to dethrone the words of God. The occult movement operates just like that.
Perhaps many are unaware and sometimes Christians get deceive by the works of the devil. “For we are not ignorant of his devices..” Also try to consider, not to put blame on KJVO’s for I know many KJVO’s who are humble to say “We love God and obey His words, the Bible, The true Bible” I should have re-think what our Lord Jesus Christ says in John 14 "if you love me, keep my commandments..."

God bless
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113
The bible even in its meanest form is still the bible. It is the Holy Spirit of God that makes the word of God efficacious not a group of translators or linguistic scholars.

Isa 55:11 So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.

It is God not us that has the authority.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
It is God, that's right then His words is authorative.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113
See this is what destroys your credibility. No bible contains all the truth save the original manuscripts. Even here God chose to deliver His word through multiple writers and over centuries. The scripture we have is certainly sufficient but is it all inclusive? Perhaps but perhaps not.

2Ti 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

Many souls have been saved without a written version of Gods word. Many were unable to read and relied upon oral recitation of the word of God.

You just cannot go about making wide sweeping blanket statements and expect to be seen as a man of integrity. This is especially evident in that you see yourself as above reproach even when you are shown you obvious error.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
Perfect, 2 Timothy 3:15 has nothing to do with the orignals. The descriptive word used in the Bible says it is the “holy scriptures” nothing about the “originals".
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113
right! that's how I know that I probably don't have a perfect translation. and even if I did, I wouldn't understand it, see it, perfectly.
Hi Sir Dan,

Okay, then there is no point of discussion. That’s the end. The argument of not understanding is weak. Why? That’s why we need to seek the guidance of the Holy Spirit to teach us and study His words. Of course we aren’t perfect but it is the Words of God that is perfect!

God bless
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113
This post caught my attention, because I memorized this passage from the NIV and the above didn't sound right. However, I checked a popular online source, "biblegateway.com" and indeed, its versions of the NIV and ESV read as above (For the record, I consciously chose not to address the NWT version, because I and most Christians don't consider it a true Bible). I don't have my paper edition handy, but I checked other sources and found the following:

2This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, 3but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God (https://www.bible.com/bible/111/1jn.4.niv)

2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, 3 and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you heard was coming and now is in the world already. (1 John 4 - ESVBible.org) ((for clarity I removed the footnote markers))

Now... the KJV says this:
[SUP]2 [/SUP]Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:[SUP]3 [/SUP]And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

So... we have the assertion that you can discern the value of a translation by comparing one verse. The above shows plainly that the truth is in all three versions, though it is not spelled out in verse 3 in the newer versions. However, it is quite clear that verse 3 is a continuation of the sentence in verse 2, and does not require restatement of the full concept to put across the truth.

Either way, let's all be careful about the sources we quote and not be hasty in our judgments. Intellectual integrity requires that we not misrepresent what a source says, and then make a serious charge based on incomplete or misleading evidence.
Hi Sir Dino,

Thank you and I’m glad for your response. What I really mean is that we need to study the verse I mentioned as compared with the others like NIV, ESV or even the JW. It may be a surprise why I connected JW’s own bible with the two? It is because they came from almost same line of manuscript authority the Wescott and Hort. If you find some time looking at the Foreword of the JW’s bible then you will find W_H.

Now, considering what the NIV and the ESV of having not the word “Christ “ as in the KJV, do we really think the idea is still the same?

Here as I said “every word is pure” and “every word” is important and how important is the the word “Christ”? Well, the conceptual approach of inspiration may not just be good for the KJVO’s. Many of the KJVO’s I know believe in the plenary-verbal inspiration. Well, I said we need to “study” the single verse. Oh I need to study more about English or needed to refine it. But what should we do when we study?

Studying the Book of 1 John tells us that there are forces that work against Christ even denying the full deity of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. Gnostics were around the corner during that time and John is indeed battling Gnosticism. In every sort of his written letter, Beloved John is very careful to what the leading of the Holy Spirit of telling that Jesus is the Christ. A very stern warning that anyone who does not recognize Jesus is “the Christ” is an anti Christ and is a liar. So we find that in all of the chapters of the Book of1 John, that Beloved John has this word concerning about our Lord Jesus is “Christ”, Altering it defeats it purpose. Here is the KJB look and why it is correct than we are trying to compare and how important is the word Christ. Question is who exalts our Lord Jesus Christ more?

1 John 1:3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.

1 John 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.

1 John 2: 1 My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

1 John 3:23 And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment.

1 John 4:2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:

1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

1 John 5:1 Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.

1 John 5:6 This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth.

1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.

God bless
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,025
940
113
Not sure what you mean by this.
Let me explain:

This is only to find a clear demonstration that if you alter the words of God, then simply you're not sure of what is says...:)
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,861
13,463
113
What accusations? I gave the statement and provided the undeniable proof that it is missing verses, chapters, books of the bible. So what other way is there to deal with the situation? Your the one saying the KJV added verses when it didnt snd havent shown anything to support it, hypocrite much?
Accusations... regarding the Sinaiticus. What you provided is undeniable proof that there are verses in the KJV which aren't in some newer versions. That doesn't prove addition (in the KJV) or deletion (in the newer) either way. The other way to deal with the situation is exactly as I have described it... find an objective source external to both and compare both to it.

In debating, if you make an assertion, you must support it. Your "opponent" has no obligation to prove you wrong; you must prove yourself right. Otherwise what you are making is a burden-of-proof reversal, which is not valid. So, at this point, the burden is on you to prove that the verses actually should be there, and were removed when they shouldn't have been. Merely showing that they aren't there in the newer versions does not prove your assertion. By the way, you can't assert that the KJV is perfect, preserved, or inspired to prove your point, for that would be circular reasoning, which is also logically flawed.