The perennial Acts 2.38 confusion .

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eternally-gratefull

Guest
God wasn't surprised. And surely it was God who made the prophesy come forward from Peter that the promise was "for as many as the Lord our God shall call." (Acts 2:39)
yep

the baptism of the spirit

Not baptism in water
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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Lol

yet if we teach it as it says in acts 2:38 KJV. We are teaching baptismal regeneration by water,

that was never taught in any message of any apostle in the NT.

so you are causing more problems, not helping
Since Jesus said we will all be judged by the contents of the word I can make an educated guess. God didn't expect people to learn Greek or Hebrew. He caused men to record exactly what He meant to convey in English as well as any other bible translation.

I don't think it is wise to teach others to avoid believing exactly what Acts 2:38 says. What is scary is you admit yourself you know the scripture states that sins are remitted in the waters of baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus.
 

throughfaith

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But he did not tell them that. He told them to repent to recieve the gift. Baptism was not part of that.

Yes, they GLADLY recieved the word in faith. And BECAUSE they recieved and was saved, They aboyed the command to be baptized.

Funny how the same thing happens to us..

I was baptized because I GLADLY recieved the message.

wern't you?
Post hoc rationalization and a denial of what 2.38 says . I recieved the Holy spirit as per Eph 1.13 .
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Since Jesus said we will all be judged by the contents of the word I can make an educated guess. God didn't expect people to learn Greek or Hebrew. He caused men to record exactly what He meant to convey in English as well as any other bible translation.
Thats ok. He wrote the bible in greek. Not english for a reason. Your english text is a translation.

I don't think it is wise to teach others to avoid believing exactly what Acts 2:38 says. What is scary is you admit yourself you know the scripture states that sins are remitted in the waters of baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus.
then why do you do that very thing?
 

throughfaith

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God wasn't surprised. And surely it was God who made the prophesy come forward from Peter that the promise was "for as many as the Lord our God shall call." (Acts 2:39)
Acts 11 .19
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Post hoc rationalization and a denial of what 2.38 says . I recieved the Holy spirit as per Eph 1.13 .
I read acts 2: 38 as written. Not as translated by people in the 1600's thank you
 

throughfaith

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God wasn't surprised. And surely it was God who made the prophesy come forward from Peter that the promise was "for as many as the Lord our God shall call." (Acts 2:39)
Peter is addressing Israel . He has no gentile in mind ( Acts 11.19 ) It takes the Cornelius account for Peter to realise that also Gentiles were now granted repentance. So when Peter says ' for as many as the Lord our God shall call." He means Jews .
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Just as they were told to do

To Jerusalem first..

But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be witnesses to Me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.”

What part of that do you fail to understand?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Peter is addressing Israel . He has no gentile in mind ( Acts 11.19 ) It takes the Cornelius account for Peter to realise that also Gentiles were now granted repentance. So when Peter says ' for as many as the Lord our God shall call." He means Jews .
Peter did not teach to them a different Gospel

the penalty of sin is death. Not being baptized.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Which English Translation do you read Acts 2.38 the way you believe? Do you only read the Greek ? If so which Greek?
I already asked you to show me one greek text which has baptism written in 2nd person plural

Can you show me one?

I did not see this until I could no more answer the problem of peter saying water baptism is required.

And no. I could not change the word to your way to make my belief fit. The gospel message has been the same from the begining. salvation by grace through faith. Period. Salvation has NEVER been of works.
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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yep

the baptism of the spirit

Not baptism in water
The entire message is encompassed in verses 38 and 39. In all cases of compliance to Peter's message individuals do all things presented albeit in differing sequences. At no time is any part eliminated; ie, belief, repentance, water baptism or the infilling of the Holy Ghost.
 

throughfaith

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I already asked you to show me one greek text which has baptism written in 2nd person plural

Can you show me one?

I did not see this until I could no more answer the problem of peter saying water baptism is required.

And no. I could not change the word to your way to make my belief fit. The gospel message has been the same from the begining. salvation by grace through faith. Period. Salvation has NEVER been of works.
What your asking is essentially, do I know more than those that translated on the Kjv . I do not . But your arguing with pretty much all English translations on Acts 2.38 .
 

p_rehbein

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John the Baptist baptized with water, and said Christ was greater than him and would baptize with the holy spirit. When Christ baptized with the holy spirit he still used water, yet it wasn't the water that was important but the spirit.
No. The baptism of the Holy Spirit takes place when one gives their life to Jesus. This occurs most often when one kneels at an alter, but it can happen most anywhere.

Water baptism is
This speaks of a "spiritual" event. This does NOT say the Apostles were water baptized. Thanks though...

Those the Apostles water baptized were taught that such baptism was SYMBOLIC of dying with Jesus and being resurrected with Him.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
The entire message is encompassed in verses 38 and 39. In all cases of compliance to Peter's message individuals do all things presented albeit in differing sequences. At no time is any part eliminated; ie, belief, repentance, water baptism or the infilling of the Holy Ghost.
The fact remains that repent and gift of the spirit are second person plural object and subject where as be baptized is third person singular as related to remission of sin, NOT the gift of the spirit,

hence in no way was the gift of the spirit a result of being water baptized

spin it however you want, it’s is teaching salvation by ones own merit not by grace to say water baptism, not spirit baptism is how one receives remission of sin
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
What your asking is essentially, do I know more than those that translated on the Kjv . I do not . But your arguing with pretty much all English translations on Acts 2.38 .
So you can not answer, that’s ok, because you will never find one

when the KJV was interpreted it was interpreted by texts of people,who believes water immersion baptism was required for salvation. So I would not expect them to see it any other way

but if you want to base your eternity on a translation, feel free
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Do you do this with other verses ?
Peter when Jesus asked him three times, do you love me. Did you know Jesus used two different words, having two different meanings, yet translated with one English word which has a variety of meanings?

people,go to the Greek all the time. Because the English language itself is flawed,

but you would rather support water baptismal regeneration that fight it, and that’s ok, do what you wish