The purpose of Christ

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Mar 4, 2013
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what does this mean?

For when the priesthood is changed, the law must be changed also.
(Hebrews 7:12)


"A" is singular. Original Arabic, which Hebrews was written in, translated to English and excluding the Greek, reads as follows. We will probably have another argument, propagated by the adversary, over this also.

"But as there is
a change in the priesthood, so also is there a change in the instruction (to the Levitical priests). Hebrews 7:12

Following this verse in context with related scriptures within the book of Hebrews, a change in the priestly line means a change in the instructions that relate to priests.

The purpose of Christ Jesus was to fulfill this priestly line in detail being changed from Levi to Judah.


 
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posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,776
13,534
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1 John 3:8 (KJV)
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning.
For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

Jesus Christ came to Earth to declare the Father (John 1:18)

Jesus Christ said He came specifically to “reveal” the Father(Matthew 11:27; Luke 10:22).

“I speak to the world those things which I have heard of him” (John 8:26).

For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me,
he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.John 12:49

"My Father is greater than I" (John 14:28).
the word which you hear is not Mine but the Father's who sent Me" (John 14:24).



Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world
Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean;
wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow.

(Psalm 51:7)

:)

He is faithful!
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,776
13,534
113
"A" is singular. Original Arabic, which Hebrews was written in, translated to English and excluding the Greek, reads as follows. We will probably have another argument, propagated by the adversary, over this also.

"But as there is
a change in the priesthood, so also is there a change in the instruction (to the Levitical priests). Hebrews 7:12

Following this verse in context with related scriptures within the book of Hebrews, a change in the priestly line means
a change in the instructions that relate to priests.

The purpose of Christ Jesus was to fulfill this priestly line in detail being changed from Levi to Judah.


and these priests, are they not those who put their trust in the precious gift of this Lamb?
(1 Peter 2:5, Revelation 1:6, 5:10)
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,776
13,534
113
"A" is singular. Original Arabic, which Hebrews was written in, translated to English and excluding the Greek, reads as follows. We will probably have another argument, propagated by the adversary, over this also.

"But as there is
a change in the priesthood, so also is there a change in the instruction (to the Levitical priests). Hebrews 7:12

Following this verse in context with related scriptures within the book of Hebrews, a change in the priestly line means a change in the instructions that relate to priests.

The purpose of Christ Jesus was to fulfill this priestly line in detail being changed from Levi to Judah.


ah - and Torah is law for the priesthood of Levi, right?
 
Mar 4, 2013
7,761
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and these priests, are they not those who put their trust in the precious gift of this Lamb?
(1 Peter 2:5, Revelation 1:6, 5:10)
Not of the old physical covenant, but of the new through our High Priest Jesus Christ.
"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;" 1 Peter 2:9
 
Jan 19, 2013
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"A" is singular. Original Arabic, which Hebrews was written in,
Baloney. . .where is this Aramiac transcript?

translated to English and excluding the Greek, reads as follows. We will probably have another argument, propagated by the adversary, over this also.

"But as there is
a change in the priesthood, so also is there a change in the instruction (to the Levitical priests). Hebrews 7:12
Nope. . .the word is "law," it is not "instruction."

Following this verse in context with related scriptures within the book of Hebrews, a change in the priestly line means a change in the instructions that relate to priests.
That would be "following this verse you altered," replacing "law" with "instruction."

The purpose of Christ Jesus was to fulfill this priestly line in detail being changed from Levi to Judah.
Nope. . .that priestly line could never offer the perfect sacrifice of the High Priest himself.

It required a new eternal priesthood in the order of Melchizedek, which the Levitical priesthood was not.


 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,776
13,534
113
Not of the old physical covenant, but of the new through our High Priest Jesus Christ.
"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;" 1 Peter 2:9
so not that we are lawless in Him - but that both the condemnation and punishment of the law, He took upon Himself, and the reward and righteousness of the law, He secured, and gave, so that we, dying inwardly with Him, are also given life inwardly in Him - taking part in His death we also have part in His resurrection?

this doesn't place us under the Torah, but frees us from it - though this life is to be manifested outwardly, or we make ourselves liars, and shame His promise.

even if we aren't condemned, we can act like fools, and that isn't good. that's how i understand this ..? my obedience isn't the cause of my righteousness, but the reaction to His declaration. so it is with joy and gratitude, not fear and anxiety, that i am made careful not to sin :)
 
Mar 21, 2015
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In medieval times, an enormous debate raged amongst the clergy regarding how many angels could fit on the head of a pin.
Went on for years.

It seems that little has changed.
 
Mar 4, 2013
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Read John 1.

Do you deny that Yeshua is the living Word?
If the Word (Christ Jesus) is in the beginning, then the Word spoken and recorded as God's word to Moses, and the prophets, have to also be the words of Christ Jesus. Our Lord and Savior is not against His own Father let alone Himself.

"And if a house be divided against itself, that house cannot stand." Mark 3:25

But... of course we all know that Satan demands God's children to be divided so he can rule instead of Christ Jesus. The choice is really ours. Rhetorically, do we cause division or cohesiveness? By this simple deduction, (depending on obvious actions), we can all clearly see who is following what spiritual persuasion. If the shoe fits...............:confused:
 
Jan 19, 2013
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dabbed on the lintel and the doorposts, sprinkled on the horns of the altar, and over my head :)
And sprinkled on the priests and garments at ordination, adorning with the "beauty of holiness"
(1Chr 16:29; 2Chr 20:21; Ps 29:2).
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,776
13,534
113
i don't understand "the priesthood changed from Levi to Judah" -- if i'm understanding Hebrews correctly, His priesthood like Melchizadek is not by genealogy, so not transferred to another tribe - but by the direct appointment of God.
who appointed Christ, and appointed us to be found in Him. so we take part in it - but He is eternal, eternally our High priest.
He sent His Christ to be born into Judah, to rightfully be heir to the throne over Israel, but He became our priest apart from any relationship to a tribe, right?
i guess it is - the priesthood is changed. it isn't the same priesthood that Levi was appointed to.

i don't want to get into any argument about the original language of this epistle. am totally not qualified. prolly not really pertinent to the topic, but i really don't know. poking around, there is actually serious discussion about that i found on some other forums - interesting stuff that is way over my head, haha.
 
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
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In medieval times, an enormous debate raged amongst the clergy regarding how many angels could fit on the head of a pin.
Went on for years.

It seems that little has changed.
I thought they decided it was 13.
 
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
141
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But... of course we all know that Satan demands God's children to be divided so he can rule instead of Christ Jesus. The choice is really ours. Rhetorically, do we cause division or cohesiveness? By this simple deduction, (depending on obvious actions), we can all clearly see who is following what spiritual persuasion. If the shoe fits...............:confused:
Agreed. . .presentation of a false gospel will always cause divisiveness, just as it did in the NT
(Gal 5:12).

A false gospel leaves no doubt as to its author.
 
Jan 19, 2013
11,909
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i don't understand "the priesthood changed from Levi to Judah" -- if i'm understanding Hebrews correctly, His priesthood like Melchizadek is not by genealogy, so not transferred to another tribe - but by the direct appointment of God.
You are absolutely correct. . .that is the sum and total of it. . . and nothing more
needs to, nor truthfully can, be said.