A
I don't know exactly where I got it from but I have winter 57-58. But of course it's is irrelevant, because if he penned it any time after the cross, you cannot use the cross as the time he referenced.
But now you are wandering off into presumption to fit your pop-eschatological approach.
You even have to pretend that the "times of the Gentiles" in Jerusalem were fulfilled in the 1st century, when the Roman GENTILES came back to kill another 500 to 750,000 Jews less than 70 years later. But with eyes open to history a person can see the time of the Gentiles in Jerusalem were not fulfilled until Jews gained control in 1967.
But now you are wandering off into presumption to fit your pop-eschatological approach.
You even have to pretend that the "times of the Gentiles" in Jerusalem were fulfilled in the 1st century, when the Roman GENTILES came back to kill another 500 to 750,000 Jews less than 70 years later. But with eyes open to history a person can see the time of the Gentiles in Jerusalem were not fulfilled until Jews gained control in 1967.
Also im not in agreement the "times of the gentiles" and the "fulness of the gentiles" are the same.
1967 doesnt apply at all to me.