The Texas Chainsaw Bible Massacre

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Jan 17, 2020
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#81
The title of this thread is disingenuous. It has semblance of relationship to , Texas chainsaw anything. Especially in light of the actual fact that many years ago there was committed in Texas what was known as the Texas chainsaw massacre. And of course Hollywood exploited that savagery and loss of life to a psychopath, whom the movie, "Silence of the Lambs", was made in reference to as well; Ed Gein.

@massorite posted a similar thread to this one back in February. And this article that appears to be a cut and paste from different sources and uncredited is being posted by Dave-L on other forums, under different names.
He's on a mission folks.
That is not a compliment.
I chose this title because it encapsulates Dispensationalism and how they ravage the scriptures to support their false prophecy.
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#82
First, the difference in the two words heaven and God. God is a spirit and heaven is a physical place. Thus, in the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

The sermon on the mount is concerning the Jews living in this physical kingdom of heaven. The Kingdom of Heaven is spoken about and it says that if one sinned against God that he would go to hell. The Kingdom of God is a spiritual kingdom in which the Christian lives (Romans 14:17). If the two are same then there is a contradiction that the Christian's salvation includes works.
John says any without the Sermon on the Mount is also without God. Matthew calls the Sermon the doctrine of Christ. John says any without the doctrine of Christ is not saved.

Where does it say the kingdom of heaven is physical?
 

Whispered

Well-known member
Aug 17, 2019
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www.christiancourier.com
#84
“the kingdom of Heaven is at hand” (Matt. 4:17) = “the kingdom of God is at hand” (Mark 1:15)

“Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 5:3) = “Blessed are the poor, for yours is the kingdom of God” (Luke 6:20)

“Among those born of women there has not risen a greater than John the Baptist, notwithstanding he who is least in the kingdom of Heaven is greater than him.” (Matt. 11:11) = “Among those born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist, but he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than him.” (Luke 7:28)

“the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven” (Matt. 13:11) = “the mysteries of the kingdom of God” (Mark 4:11 cp. Luke 8:10)

“the kingdom of Heaven is like a grain of mustard seed” (Matt 13:31) = “the kingdom of God...is like a grain of mustard seed” (Mark 4:30-31 cp. Luke 13:18-19)

“The kingdom of Heaven is like leaven” (Matt. 13:33) = “the kingdom of God...is like leaven” (Luke 13:20)

“Except you be converted, and become as little children, you shall not enter into the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 18:3-4) = “Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein” (Mark 10:15)

“Allow little children, and do not forbid them to come to me, for of such is the kingdom of Heaven.” (Matt. 19:14) = “Allow the little children to come to me, and do not forbid them, for of such is the kingdom of God.” (Mark 10:14 cp. Luke 18:16)

“a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 19:23) = “How hardly shall they who have riches enter into the kingdom of God!” (Luke 18:24)

In other words, “kingdom of God” = “kingdom of Heaven.”
The Difference Between the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven

Posted on August 16, 2019


"...The phrase “kingdom of God” is used 68 times throughout the New Testament. As a comparison, “kingdom of heaven” is only used 32 times and found exclusively in the book of Matthew. Many (in fact, very many) theories exist about the difference between the “kingdom of God” and “kingdom of heaven,” and some even say they are the same thing. It seems there is no one, straight forward answer. "


....

"...Scofield’s View of the Kingdoms



The Scofield Reference Bible makes five distinctions between the KH and the KG, but they boil down to two main points.

First, the KG is made of only believers, both human and angelic, who willingly subject themselves to God’s authority. The KH is made only of humans who profess God, whether they are actual believers or not.

Second, the KG is eternal and spiritual in nature, while the KH is temporary and physical.

Both of these ideas relate to what’s called dispensational theology, which we won’t get into here. But they can quickly be dismissed if you believe the KG and the KH are one and the same."
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#85
John says any without the Sermon on the Mount is also without God. Matthew calls the Sermon the doctrine of Christ. John says any without the doctrine of Christ is not saved.

Where does it say the kingdom of heaven is physical?
Any Jew living in the physical kingdom of heaven...

Is Paul’s teachings to the body of Christ to be followed? Did the Lord reveal to Paul further revelation?
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#86
Any Jew living in the physical kingdom of heaven...

Is Paul’s teachings to the body of Christ to be followed? Did the Lord reveal to Paul further revelation?
You reject Christ when you say the Sermon is not for today.
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#87
The Difference Between the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven

Posted on August 16, 2019


"...The phrase “kingdom of God” is used 68 times throughout the New Testament. As a comparison, “kingdom of heaven” is only used 32 times and found exclusively in the book of Matthew. Many (in fact, very many) theories exist about the difference between the “kingdom of God” and “kingdom of heaven,” and some even say they are the same thing. It seems there is no one, straight forward answer. "


....

"...Scofield’s View of the Kingdoms



The Scofield Reference Bible makes five distinctions between the KH and the KG, but they boil down to two main points.

First, the KG is made of only believers, both human and angelic, who willingly subject themselves to God’s authority. The KH is made only of humans who profess God, whether they are actual believers or not.

Second, the KG is eternal and spiritual in nature, while the KH is temporary and physical.

Both of these ideas relate to what’s called dispensational theology, which we won’t get into here. But they can quickly be dismissed if you believe the KG and the KH are one and the same."
But scripture refutes this.

“the kingdom of Heaven is at hand” (Matt. 4:17) = “the kingdom of God is at hand” (Mark 1:15)

“Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 5:3) = “Blessed are the poor, for yours is the kingdom of God” (Luke 6:20)

“Among those born of women there has not risen a greater than John the Baptist, notwithstanding he who is least in the kingdom of Heaven is greater than him.” (Matt. 11:11) = “Among those born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist, but he who is least in the kingdom of God is greater than him.” (Luke 7:28)

“the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven” (Matt. 13:11) = “the mysteries of the kingdom of God” (Mark 4:11 cp. Luke 8:10)

“the kingdom of Heaven is like a grain of mustard seed” (Matt 13:31) = “the kingdom of God...is like a grain of mustard seed” (Mark 4:30-31 cp. Luke 13:18-19)

“The kingdom of Heaven is like leaven” (Matt. 13:33) = “the kingdom of God...is like leaven” (Luke 13:20)

“Except you be converted, and become as little children, you shall not enter into the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 18:3-4) = “Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein” (Mark 10:15)

“Allow little children, and do not forbid them to come to me, for of such is the kingdom of Heaven.” (Matt. 19:14) = “Allow the little children to come to me, and do not forbid them, for of such is the kingdom of God.” (Mark 10:14 cp. Luke 18:16)

“a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of Heaven” (Matt. 19:23) = “How hardly shall they who have riches enter into the kingdom of God!” (Luke 18:24)

In other words, “kingdom of God” = “kingdom of Heaven.”
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#88
I thought it was to display how you ravage scriptures to support your enjoyment of ravaging scriptures.
Dispensationalism is based on a gap (silence) that scripture never mentions. The rest is butchering one scripture after another to prove their false prophetic scheme.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#89
You reject Christ when you say the Sermon is not for today.
You’re too funny and judgmental. Do you adhere to the sermon on the mount for the Jews? No Christians were at the sermon, Christ’s Church was not formed yet.

If you call someone a fool, are you in danger of hell fire?
Verse 23, an alter? The Church has no alter. That’s a Jewish thing.
Verse 29 is the body of Christ? Lol

I could go on and on...
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#90
You’re too funny and judgmental. Do you adhere to the sermon on the mount for the Jews? No Christians were at the sermon, Christ’s Church was not formed yet.

If you call someone a fool, are you in danger of hell fire?
Verse 23, an alter? The Church has no alter. That’s a Jewish thing.
Verse 29 is the body of Christ? Lol

I could go on and on...
Paul quotes the Sermon for Christians.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#91
Paul quotes the Sermon for Christians.
Where please? Paul was given new revelation for the body of Christ.

11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#93
Where please? Paul was given new revelation for the body of Christ.

11 But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man.
12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.
“Recompense to no man evil for evil. Provide things honest in the sight of all men.” Romans 12:17 (KJV 1900)

“Dearly beloved, avenge not yourselves, but rather give place unto wrath: for it is written, Vengeance is mine; I will repay, saith the Lord. Therefore if thine enemy hunger, feed him; if he thirst, give him drink: for in so doing thou shalt heap coals of fire on his head. Be not overcome of evil, but overcome evil with good.” Romans 12:19–21 (KJV 1900)
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#94
Are you the standard for true prophecy?
The standard for true prophecy is within the Bible -- not the fantasies of men. We are to take Bible prophecy in its plain literal sense, and by comparing Scripture with Scripture, arrive at a proper interpretation through exegesis. We cannot allegorize or spiritualize things at random or at will.

The Reformers failed to reject the ideas of the Catholic Church and Augustine. Hence all the confusion about future events, calling the pope the Antichrist, interpreting days as years, applying future prophecies to historical events, etc.
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#95
Paul quotes the Sermon for Christians.

it seems you are doing your best to tempt weak or new Christians or those who have not studied the Bible (but should) to question literally everything they thought they understood

in most cases, I would venture...nay I am certain....you would destroy their faith by whatever prompts you so to do, instead of the flack you get which you so richly have earned with all your hard work creating your personal opinion ops

I have never ever since I have belonged to this forum (and since this is my 2nd profile cause I left and then came back so my time is longer than it would seem) seen anyone do so much in as little time as do you to discredit just about everything scripture plainly states

you seem very busy trying to create 'little yous'

reminds me of something Jesus said to the Pharisees :confused:

just discredit what Christ Himself said because it does not fit your narrative


this is how you discredit the truth

everyone really should take what you say as from someone who keeps missing the mark.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
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#97
They are the same kingdom. Prove they are not using direct quotes from scripture.
The thread has gotten off on a tangent. Matthew uses 'kingdom of heaven' in places where Mark uses 'kingdom of God.' There was a Jewish custom to substitute words for God's name. We see this in Judaism today.

That's not the issue. It's hard to 'prove' anything to you from scripture when you can allegoricalize away anything scripture says. The Old Testament has numerous prophecies for 'Israel.' 'Israel' is often used to refer to the largely disobedient people of God, descendants of Jacob. It is not consistently used for God's righteous remnant. In Romans, the nation is referred to as 'Israel'. Part of them are blinded. "Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for.' The idea that Israel means the church just does not stand up to the way the term is used throughout the New Testament, and certainly not in Romans.

If you allegoricalize passages that make promises to Israeli to arrive at a certain eschatological view, it is difficult to 'prove' anything to your satisfaction because you interpret the proof as an allegory for your theory. I haven't met an amil who could actually go through the promises of the Old Testament and say this word or phrase stands for that in a consistent way. They may have a few key phrases or words like clouds, air, etc.

A problem with supercessionist amil is from the perspective of those who immediately received the prophecies, how would supercessionist interpretations of promises be an honest fulfillment of the promise. The nation is promised that it will be restored and returned, but supercessionist reinterpret the nation to refer to another set of people.

There is also no evidence that the apostles or early church held to these highly allegorical interpretations of Old Testament prophecy. There is no reason for us to think that when the apostles asked about the restoration of the kingdom of Israel they had in mind them being fulfilled allegorically through a primarily Gentile group of believers in the Messiah. Why should we superimpose supercessionist interpretations onto the scriptures? The earliest information we have about what early Christians, including at least one who heard apostolic teaching directly, is that they held to a much more literal interpretation. Isn't it anachronitic to use an interpertation method that become popular in later centuries.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#98
“Recompense to no man evil for evil. Provide things honest in the sight of all men.” Romans 12:17 (KJV 1900)

“Dearly beloved, avenge not yourselves, but rather give place unto wrath: for it is written, Vengeance is mine; I will repay, saith the Lord. Therefore if thine enemy hunger, feed him; if he thirst, give him drink: for in so doing thou shalt heap coals of fire on his head. Be not overcome of evil, but overcome evil with good.” Romans 12:19–21 (KJV 1900)
Why leave out this? The Lord has left self defense if living peaceably is not possible, a change from Matthew.

18 If it be possible, as much as lieth in you, live peaceably with all men.
 
Jan 17, 2020
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#99
Why leave out this? The Lord has left self defense if living peaceably is not possible, a change from Matthew.

18 If it be possible, as much as lieth in you, live peaceably with all men.
“See that none render evil for evil unto any man; but ever follow that which is good, both among yourselves, and to all men.” 1 Thessalonians 5:15 (KJV 1900)
 
Jan 17, 2020
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The thread has gotten off on a tangent. Matthew uses 'kingdom of heaven' in places where Mark uses 'kingdom of God.' There was a Jewish custom to substitute words for God's name. We see this in Judaism today.

That's not the issue. It's hard to 'prove' anything to you from scripture when you can allegoricalize away anything scripture says. The Old Testament has numerous prophecies for 'Israel.' 'Israel' is often used to refer to the largely disobedient people of God, descendants of Jacob. It is not consistently used for God's righteous remnant. In Romans, the nation is referred to as 'Israel'. Part of them are blinded. "Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for.' The idea that Israel means the church just does not stand up to the way the term is used throughout the New Testament, and certainly not in Romans.

If you allegoricalize passages that make promises to Israeli to arrive at a certain eschatological view, it is difficult to 'prove' anything to your satisfaction because you interpret the proof as an allegory for your theory. I haven't met an amil who could actually go through the promises of the Old Testament and say this word or phrase stands for that in a consistent way. They may have a few key phrases or words like clouds, air, etc.

A problem with supercessionist amil is from the perspective of those who immediately received the prophecies, how would supercessionist interpretations of promises be an honest fulfillment of the promise. The nation is promised that it will be restored and returned, but supercessionist reinterpret the nation to refer to another set of people.

There is also no evidence that the apostles or early church held to these highly allegorical interpretations of Old Testament prophecy. There is no reason for us to think that when the apostles asked about the restoration of the kingdom of Israel they had in mind them being fulfilled allegorically through a primarily Gentile group of believers in the Messiah. Why should we superimpose supercessionist interpretations onto the scriptures? The earliest information we have about what early Christians, including at least one who heard apostolic teaching directly, is that they held to a much more literal interpretation. Isn't it anachronitic to use an interpertation method that become popular in later centuries.
Amil = born again = can see the Kingdom of God. Premil = spiritually blind and more than likely not born again.

“Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.” John 3:3 (KJV 1900)