The Tribulation and the Church, WHEN?

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GaryA

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No what your doing is trying to change the words of the Bible to make it say what you want it to say.

Come on, do you think you know more about Greek than all the translators of every bible in the world?

If what you say is true then why didn’t they translate it the way you did?
Hang on, Rob...

What he is saying sounds like it could be valid - and - even understood as such in the English.

I have not looked into it as a matter of personal study [yet]; however, "at a glance", it certainly seems worthy of that study.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Eeny meeny miny moe pick a version that fits my flow. Is this what we call truth?
I'm just showing you the list of versions so you can see which ones are consistently translated according to the actual Greek word [and words] used in the text! That's all. Plz do not suggest that I am doing otherwise. ;)

In no way am I suggesting anyone should "take their pick" of whichever one THEY would LIKE for it to say!
In fact, I've been pointing out what it is they actually do say! ;)


[many do not examine it any further than what THEY THINK it says ;) (reading INTO the verse what is actually NOT THERE, and NOT being said! and taken from an entirely DISTINCT CONTEXT, from elsewhere using a different Grk word!)]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Hang on, Rob...

What he is saying sounds like it could be valid - and - even understood as such in the English.

I have not looked into it as a matter of personal study [yet]; however, "at a glance", it certainly seems worthy of that study.
Thank you, GaryA, for being willing to examine the text. I appreciate your post. :)



[I had pointed out]:
TDW:
note: "wake [/watch - G1127]" and "sleep [G2518]" ^ ...
I'm trying to get across to you that verse 10 is speaking of the very thing verse 6 was.
What was that?
[a completely distinct idea from that of the "sleep [G2837]" concept being spoken of in 1Th4:13,14,15[16] ;) ]
 

GaryA

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I'm trying to see if we're on the same page regarding the next portion. Thanks. :)
Please do both of us a favor - which I believe will save both of us a whole lot of text-writing.

Go take a really good look at the 'Olivet Discourse' page in the 'Study' section of my website. Be sure to read the 'Comments' column, as well as examine the small chart (Chronological Order) below the main chart.

Hopefully, many of your questions will be answered there.

Then - come back and ask the questions that were not answered there.
 

GaryA

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Just throw your bible away.
That is where i get my beliefs.
I always study my Bible with the intent of discovering what it is actually saying - as opposed to - trying to make it say what I want it to say - or, listening to the modern 'popular' opinions - or, [even] what I was taught growing up.

What I am telling you in this thread comes from that Bible.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[GaryA, addressing your Post #664] That's not a favor to ME, though. :D

It's fine.

If you want to respond here, okay, and if not, okay too. :)



[if so... see my 3 Q's in that post (I bolded them there), that is, if you care to discuss here. One of them had to do with "what do you see v.12 saying; and how do vv.12-24a then "fit in" with what verse 12 is saying (in relation, time-wise, with the preceding verses 8-11 and its parallels)? do you see vv.12-24a to be speaking of the "events surrounding 70ad" as I do, or no?]

I'm not going to your website. But please do not take this personally. It's just a thing I consistently do (or don't do, rather). :D
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[presently experiencing comp probs--was knocked offline just now--but my comp tech guy is tracing this!! so he's got it!... this is just so y'all know, in case I cannot respond again in the coming mins or whatever... seems ok for the moment, but who knows...]
 

GaryA

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That's not a favor to ME, though. :D
You never know - it just might be - more than you think... ;)

One of them had to do with "what do you see v.12 saying; and how do vv.12-24a then "fit in" with what verse 12 is saying (in relation, time-wise, with the preceding verses 8-11 and its parallels)? do you see vv.12-24a to be speaking of the "events surrounding 70ad" as I do, or no?
In the specific way that you have worded it here -- no.

It is not quite as simple as that.

And - that is why I refer people to the website - it is already "presented" there. And, I really don't want to have to take [possibly, literally] several hours to "write 1000 words" - on my phone - to try to explain what is even better illustrated on the website.

I'm not going to your website. But please do not take this personally. It's just a thing I consistently do (or don't do, rather). :D
I pretty sure I will not take it personally. However, I am curious about - why...?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Hang on, Rob...

What he is saying sounds like it could be valid - and - even understood as such in the English.

I have not looked into it as a matter of personal study [yet]; however, "at a glance", it certainly seems worthy of that study.
1Th 5:4 But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.
1Th 5:5 Ye are all the children of light, and the children of the day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness.
1Th 5:6 Therefore let us not sleep, as do others; but let us watch and be sober.
1Th 5:7 For they that sleep sleep in the night; and they that be drunken are drunken in the night.
Done with those that sleep in the night - lost people.

NEW TOPIC - Those who are of the day - saved people.
1Th 5:8 But let us, who are of the day, be sober, putting on the breastplate of faith and love; and for an helmet, the hope of salvation.
1Th 5:9 For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ,
1Th 5:10 Who died for us, that, whether we wake or sleep, we should live together with him.

Those who are of the day, God has not appointed to wrath but unto salvation by Jesus Christ, who died for us so that whether WE ARE AWAKE (alive) or whether WE SLEEP (die), we live together with Christ.

Seems simple enough to me. :)
 
Jul 23, 2018
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I did not write this to insult anyone.

It is more like...

"Christian love is trying to wake you up and get you out of the MATRIX."

To all of my born-again Christian brothers and sisters who are caught up in the pre-trib rapture "belief system" (I once was, but I thank God that He opened my eyes and got me out of it.) -- I say -- it is a lie of Satan!

PLEASE consider what I am saying to you. YOU have been deceived in one of the worst possible ways. PLEASE swallow your pride and ask God to help you see through the lie. LET GO of the poison that has you.

Please WAKE UP!
Go to your website and show me the rapture.
Then tell me how in the world you surmised the gt began at 70 ad.
 
Jul 23, 2018
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See this is why I almost never post here anymore, things can just be so overblown out of proportion. I wasn't trying to place "my judgement", on anyone. Only sharing my views and giving the logic of why I think they ring more true than the PTR. But I tried to be as careful as I could to make very clear that I believe this to be a debate among brothers, and that I KNOW brothers and sisters that hold both. I feel the only questioning of salvation in judgement has come from the PTR side, as if the fact I don't believe it would have some kind of eternal consequence. I would not divide over this issue, heck my own church teaches it. I know I use direct language, but I am sorry if I came across arrogant or judgmental. From my perspective I was just sharing and testifying. I do not want to argue like that. I was also locked out for a day because of an e-mail change issue, that's why it took so long to respond.
I wasn't trying to place "my judgement", on anyone. Only sharing my views and giving the logic of why I think they ring more true than the PTR. But I tried to be as careful as I could to make very clear that I believe this to be a debate among brothers, and that I KNOW brothers and sisters that hold both. I feel the only questioning of salvation in judgement has come from the PTR side
Ok,forgive me.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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In the specific way that you have worded it here -- no.

It is not quite as simple as that.

And - that is why I refer people to the website - it is already "presented" there. And, I really don't want to have to take [possibly, literally] several hours to "write 1000 words" - on my phone - to try to explain what is even better illustrated on the website.
I do realize (already) that you define "the great tribulation" as being that "great [length-of-time] period stretching from the events surrounding 70ad to the far future [even future to us] 2nd Coming"... basically [your view], right? I get that.

My question [/questions] involves what you see the text stating, in the verses I requested (that we examine), and how they relate (briefly, not in a long involved response, coz I do somewhat grasp your overall viewpoint already [plz do let me know if my description of your viewpoint is way off, in the paragraph above, or if this is basically how you see it, generally speaking]).

Thanks if you do, and it's fine if you don't care to. (again :) )
 
Jul 23, 2018
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Jimbone,

If you take a close look at the original Greek language wording of those [Olivet] "til all be fulfilled" verses - you should find that the actual meaning represented is "shall begin to be fulfilled" - as in - "all of these things will begin to come to pass before the current generation dies out.

And, it did! The fulfillment started even before 70 A.D.
What other ministries agree with you?
Any links to like minded misitries? Any utube vids on your views from other souces?
Is there a statement of faith on your website concerning Jesus and the pillars of the christian faith?
 

cv5

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By the way, the world is going to go to hell because that is what is written is going take place. It's not going to get better, but worse.

When the One who is now restraining is taken out of the way and the church is removed, then the full force of sin will be released and the man of sin revealed. It is the long prophesied day of the Lord and it is coming. Along with the preaching of the gospel and loving all people, we need to inform people of God's coming wrath and the severity of it and how to escape it.

As far escaping by being caught up, rescued would be a better word. For believers are not appointed to suffer God's coming wrath or any wrath and that because Jesus already suffered it on behalf of every believer.

This teaching that Jesus has already returned in 70 AD is a great distortion of God's word. We are not here to Christianize the world in preparation for the Lord's return, but are to preach the gospel and warn people about the wrath that is coming. All one has to do is turn on the tv to see that the world is not being Christianized, but that it is getting worse, and as I said, this is according to scripture. The teaching that Jesus has already come is a false teaching, period.

In addition, anyone who is also teaching that the resurrection has already taken place, like , have wandered away from truth, that teaching which Paul said would spread like gangrene and that was/is godless chatter. Not saying that this is what you believe, but most people who claim that Jesus returned in 70 AD also claim that the resurrection has already taken place.

Jesus arriving on the clouds of heaven with great power and glory to end the age, was not symbolically fulfilled by Titus and his legions destroying the temple and Jerusalem. For this will be a literal event which will take place just as it is stated, i.e. "Look, He's coming with the clouds and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him."
Completely agree with you re: Hymenaeus and Philitus.

2Thess 2:3
"Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless THE DEPARTURE [aka RAPTURE] comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God. "

Absolutely crystal clear.

"It was noted in my previous article that the best translation for the Greek word apostasia is “depart” or “departure.” Gordon Lewis summarizes the usage as follows:
The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8:13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men (1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).4"


https://pre-trib.org/pretribfiles/pdfs/Ice-TheDepartureIn2Thess2-3.pdf
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Completely agree with you re: Hymenaeus and Philitus.

2Thess 2:3
"Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless THE DEPARTURE [aka RAPTURE] comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God. "

Absolutely crystal clear.

"It was noted in my previous article that the best translation for the Greek word apostasia is “depart” or “departure.” Gordon Lewis summarizes the usage as follows:
The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8:13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men (1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).4"


https://pre-trib.org/pretribfiles/pdfs/Ice-TheDepartureIn2Thess2-3.pdf
Now apostasy REALLY means rapture lol. Hey when the words don’t match your theology just change ‘em. You dispy guys never cease to amaze.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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2Thess 2:3
"Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless THE DEPARTURE [aka RAPTURE] comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God. "

Absolutely crystal clear.
"It was noted in my previous article that the best translation for the Greek word apostasia is “depart” or “departure.” Gordon Lewis summarizes the usage as follows:
The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8:13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men (1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).4"


https://pre-trib.org/pretribfiles/pdfs/Ice-TheDepartureIn2Thess2-3.pdf
Correct. (y)


Correct, the Greek word ('apostasia' ) at its most basic meaning is "DEPARTURE"... and its up to the CONTEXT to tell just "WHAT KIND" of departure is meant (I posted about this, too, here):

https://christianchat.com/threads/the-tribulation-and-the-church-when.186736/post-4006672

https://christianchat.com/threads/the-tribulation-and-the-church-when.186736/post-4006895

https://christianchat.com/threads/the-tribulation-and-the-church-when.186736/post-4006896
 
Apr 3, 2019
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2Thess 2:3 "Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless THE DEPARTURE [aka RAPTURE] comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God. "

Absolutely crystal clear.

"It was noted in my previous article that the best translation for the Greek word apostasia is “depart” or “departure.” Gordon Lewis summarizes the usage as follows:
The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8:13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men (1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).4"


https://pre-trib.org/pretribfiles/pdfs/Ice-TheDepartureIn2Thess2-3.pdf
This is utterly preposterous and another indication of the delusions held by dispensationalists.

Tommy Ice is totally off the wall in regards to this:

The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either “departure” or “departing.” They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible Page (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).

The Wycliffe bible has:

2 Thessalonians 2:3 No man disseyue you in ony manere. For but dissencioun come first, and the man of synne be schewid, the sonne of perdicioun.

The LXX used apostasia in Joshua 22.22 and considering the context Paul clearly states the apostasy/departure is from the faith to worshipping the man of sin:

(2 Th 2:4 who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.)

Another dispensationalist fail.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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This is utterly preposterous and another indication of the delusions held by dispensationalists.

Tommy Ice is totally off the wall in regards to this:

The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either “departure” or “departing.” They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible Page (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).

The Wycliffe bible has:

2 Thessalonians 2:3 No man disseyue you in ony manere. For but dissencioun come first, and the man of synne be schewid, the sonne of perdicioun.

The LXX used apostasia in Joshua 22.22 and considering the context Paul clearly states the apostasy/departure is from the faith to worshipping the man of sin:

(2 Th 2:4 who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.)

Another dispensationalist fail.
I'm sticking with departure. It suits the context.
As does pre-trib Rapture. Clear as a bell when taking into account all of Scripture.
And Paul is undoubtedly speaking to the Rapture in Thessalonians.
 

cv5

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Nov 20, 2018
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This is utterly preposterous and another indication of the delusions held by dispensationalists.

Tommy Ice is totally off the wall in regards to this:

The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either “departure” or “departing.” They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible Page (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).

The Wycliffe bible has:

2 Thessalonians 2:3 No man disseyue you in ony manere. For but dissencioun come first, and the man of synne be schewid, the sonne of perdicioun.

The LXX used apostasia in Joshua 22.22 and considering the context Paul clearly states the apostasy/departure is from the faith to worshipping the man of sin:

(2 Th 2:4 who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.)

Another dispensationalist fail.
3Let no ma deceave you by eny meanes for the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
22,547
8,105
113
This is utterly preposterous and another indication of the delusions held by dispensationalists.

Tommy Ice is totally off the wall in regards to this:

The first seven English translations of apostasia all rendered the noun as either “departure” or “departing.” They are as follows: Wycliffe Bible (1384); Tyndale Bible Page (1526); Coverdale Bible (1535); Cranmer Bible (1539); Breeches Bible (1576); Beza Bible (1583); Geneva Bible (1608).

The Wycliffe bible has:

2 Thessalonians 2:3 No man disseyue you in ony manere. For but dissencioun come first, and the man of synne be schewid, the sonne of perdicioun.

The LXX used apostasia in Joshua 22.22 and considering the context Paul clearly states the apostasy/departure is from the faith to worshipping the man of sin:

(2 Th 2:4 who opposes and exalts himself above every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, displaying himself as being God.)

Another dispensationalist fail.
Geneva Bible

3 Let no man deceive you by any means, for that day shall not come, except there come a departing first, and that the man of sin be disclosed, even the son of perdition,