Things to Consider Before Attempting to Correct the King James Bible

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Mar 14, 2011
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#21
Matthew 4:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

If I am to live for God and please Him in all things, I need every word that He has given.
Thats not an example. (You have a trasnlation of the words in any case. You do nto have EVERY word. If you think you do your mistaken. It is impossible to translate every greek or hebrew text into a word for word english text. Literally impossible.

Either way, Again, Give an example

Can you not BACK your own argument?
 

Locoponydirtman

Well-known member
Oct 9, 2018
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#22
What's funny is "this dead horse" has been beaten, drug through the mud and beaten again. But guess what, the word of the Lord endures forever.

If we had the "originals", would Chinese people need to learn Hebrew or Greek to be saved?
No because they could be translated to Chinese. But if we have to read only the KJV then the Chinese would have to have a translation of a translation, to wit, from Greek, Hebrew, and Arabic to Ye Olde English then to Chinese could serve to be a problem.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#23
Thats not an example. (You have a trasnlation of the words in any case. You do nto have EVERY word. If you think you do your mistaken. It is impossible to translate every greek or hebrew text into a word for word english text. Literally impossible.

Either way, Again, Give an example

Can you not BACK your own argument?
As I said earlier...I guess God cannot have His words perfectly translated from one language to another...

Nothing is impossible when God is in it...

Since we don't have the "originals", I guess we will never know what saith the Scriptures.
 

Locoponydirtman

Well-known member
Oct 9, 2018
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#24
Be diligent to present yourself approved to God as a workman who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth. But avoid worldly and empty chatter, for it will lead to further ungodliness, and their talk will spread like gangrene. Among them are Hymenaeus and Philetus, But refuse foolish and ignorant speculations, knowing that they produce quarrels.
2 Timothy 2:15‭-‬17‭, ‬23 NASB
https://bible.com/bible/100/2ti.2.15-23.NASB
 
Mar 14, 2011
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#25
As I said earlier...I guess God cannot have His words perfectly translated from one language to another...

Nothing is impossible when God is in it...

Since we don't have the "originals", I guess we will never know what saith the Scriptures.
As I thought.

You made an argument, and can not prove your argument was true. All you can do is is do what you always do.

This does not prove the KJV is the complete and without error word of God.


As has proven to you over and over, it is not without error. NO english Bible is without error. But unlike you. I believe God can even take a tainted bible in a tainted language and bring people to Gods truth. He has been doing it in non KJV churches for hundreds of years now. And he will continue to do it for many centuries after we are gone
 
Mar 14, 2011
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#26
No because they could be translated to Chinese. But if we have to read only the KJV then the Chinese would have to have a translation of a translation, to wit, from Greek, Hebrew, and Arabic to Ye Olde English then to Chinese could serve to be a problem.
Remember, parts of the KJV came from latin..
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#27
As I thought.

You made an argument, and can not prove your argument was true. All you can do is is do what you always do.

This does not prove the KJV is the complete and without error word of God.

As has proven to you over and over, it is not without error. NO english Bible is without error. But unlike you. I believe God can even take a tainted bible in a tainted language and bring people to Gods truth. He has been doing it in non KJV churches for hundreds of years now. And he will continue to do it for many centuries after we are gone
As been proven to me? Not so, brother. People have to come with a stronger argument than the use of the word "Easter". That's laughable.

I also believe God can use a false bible to bring people to the truth of the gospel. It's all truth contained within for the believer to live by that's in question.

The non KJV movement has brought about the current Laodicea Age.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#28
Remember, parts of the KJV came from latin..
And parts of the originals came from Egyptian and was translated by God into Hebrew. And that translation into Hebrew is inspired by God. God is not bound by language barriers. If He wants to preserve His words in another language, He can do it...perfectly.
 
Mar 14, 2011
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#30
As been proven to me? Not so, brother. People have to come with a stronger argument than the use of the word "Easter". That's laughable.

I also believe God can use a false bible to bring people to the truth of the gospel. It's all truth contained within for the believer to live by that's in question.

The non KJV movement has brought about the current Laodicea Age.
Yeah I forgot. People can not prove something to someone who is stadning his ground and will never listen to any argument

Easter is a weak argument, You use the weakest argument to make it appear you are right..lol

Ps. I know people who are have never read a KJV bible who are much better, much more mature, and have a deeper understanding of people who are KJV onliers.

According to you. That is impossible.

As you like to say, With God ALL things are possible.. You love to use it, But sadly, You do not believe it, as it only fits as long as it supports you.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#31
3. Remember when consulting Greek and Hebrew lexicons that the King James Translators were a far greater arsenal of knowledge in regards to the original Biblical languages than those who wrote the lexicons you are consulting and that therefore you are just as well or better off to use the King James Bible itself as your Greek and Hebrew lexicon.
Your adulation of the KJV translators has clearly been unsullied by reading of their Preface to the Reader.
 
Mar 14, 2011
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#32
And parts of the originals came from Egyptian and was translated by God into Hebrew. And that translation into Hebrew is inspired by God. God is not bound by language barriers. If He wants to preserve His words in another language, He can do it...perfectly.
Yeah he could
But he did not. He did not have to.
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
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#33
More utter nonsense. I actually laughed reading the OP, it was so ludicrous!

Circular logic. I like the KJV so therefore it is the right version. Because the KJV is the right version, I like it!

No knowledge of lower Biblical criticism, which is an understanding of the manuscript evidence. The 6000 Greek NT manuscripts, which date from approx 125 AD to the 7 late corrupted 15th century manuscripts used by Erasmus, a Catholic priest, and the KJV translators used his translation as a basis for their 1611 KJV.

As for errors, the KJV is rife with them! From all the additions by Byzantine scribes, who like to "interpret" or embellish the text, archaic and obsolete vocabulary and grammar to this ridiculous myth of word for word translations, KJV is an error a minute! Although, none truly affect fundamental doctrine. But sadly l, most cults use KJV, grabbing onto disputed texts like the longer ending of Mark, to make false doctrine. Better the NIV. Which just eliminates the longer ending than a wrong a spurious ending!

Greek has a completely different syntax or word order than English. German is much closer, it is easier to get a match of Greek to German. Noun cases are so important in Greek. The nominative case, for example, is the subject of a sentence. You can have it at the front, middle or end of a sentence in Greek. For example:

"People from the whole Judean countryside and all of Jerusalem were going out to him, and he was baptizing them in the Jordan River as they confessed their sins." Mark 1:5 NET

"And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins." KJV

These are very similar, and do NOT follow Greek!

"καὶ ἐξεπορεύετο πρὸς αὐτὸν πᾶσα ἡ Ἰουδαία χώρα καὶ οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται [a]πάντες, καὶ ἐβαπτίζοντο ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ ἐν τῷ Ἰορδάνῃ ποταμῷ ἐξομολογούμενοι τὰς ἁμαρτίας αὐτῶν." SBL

Some will say, "But that's not Stephanus!!" Wel, other than missing all the diacritical markings, it is almost identical to SBL. Only the "ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ" is in a different position, and SBL notes by using that there are 2 possibilities, but their version has determined that the first position is stinger.

"και εξεπορευετο προς αυτον πασα η ιουδαια χωρα και οι ιεροσολυμιται και εβαπτιζοντο παντες εν τω ιορδανη ποταμω υπ αυτου εξομολογουμενοι τας αμαρτιας αυτων."

"τας αμαρτιας αυτων" is literally:
"The sin their" NO version puts it that way, because that is not good English. All versions say "their sins" dropping the tas, which is accusative feminine plural, for the definite article. We don't have gender in English nouns, and the corrrct way to say this, as both KJV and NET, (a modern functional translation) say "their sins." Which is not word for word, but corrrct in English.

Getting back to the nominative case, what is the subject of this sentence?

"ἡ Ἰουδαία χώρα καὶ οἱ Ἱεροσολυμῖται"
"The Judean countryside and the Jerusalemites."

We know this because the two articles ἡ and οἱ, are nominative feminine singular and masculine nominative plural, and the two nouns are in the nominative case.

KJV handles this issue in a strange way, adding the word "there" which is not in the Greek. NET adds "they" which is a legitimate addition in terms of being the subject of the verb, understood, not written. Neither translation is able to show that the subject is "The Judean countryside and the Jerusalemites, " because by trying to cling to the word order, it means the subject, which in English is mostly defined by its position at the beginning of the sentence, which is lost in keeping to Greek word order, although it is obvious in Greek! And German!

"Und es ging zu ihm hinaus das ganze jüdische Land und die von Jerusalem und ließen sich alle von ihm taufen im Jordan und bekannten ihre Sünden." Luther Bible

Both KJV and NET must use dynamic equivalent, or because it is impossible to understand the subject without adding word in English.

So, translating from Greek yo English can never have the same word order. As for using 16th century English, I can only wonder why anyone would want to read the Bible in a language that is not their own? But, if that work for then, keep in reading!
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
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#36
KJV Deu 32:10 He found him in a desert land, and in the waste howling wilderness; he led him about, he instructed him, he kept him as the apple of his eye.


The expression above is from bygone days, even from befoe the KJV, however it ws kept in the KJV because the translators knew the meaning……...

The apple of the eye is the pupil. I knew this, but many are not familiar with the expression, and they just gloss it over with the idea that it is the favored sight of the beholder, but it means that and more.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#37
KJV Deu 32:10 He found him in a desert land, and in the waste howling wilderness; he led him about, he instructed him, he kept him as the apple of his eye.


The expression above is from bygone days, even from befoe the KJV, however it ws kept in the KJV because the translators knew the meaning……...

The apple of the eye is the pupil. I knew this, but many are not familiar with the expression, and they just gloss it over with the idea that it is the favored sight of the beholder, but it means that and more.
Yep, study to shew thyself approved unto God...

Within the context, it's very easy to understand. Does not the word "eye" give it away?
 

louis

Senior Member
Nov 1, 2017
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#38
How in the world are you getting pastry out of this? I mean, it's early and I could eat too, but...;)

It is possible that the raisin cakes were used for idolatrous worship and sacrifice. This fits in with the idolatrous context of Hosea and even Gill noted this as being plausible. These are not cakes as in pastry, but raisins pressed into a cake of raisins.

When we like a certain meaning because it makes sense "to us" than that is not rightly dividing the word. It is instead being subjective. That would be against the premise of the OP.

Context should rule our interpretation, not pet peaves, our own gratification, hasty conclusions or what makes sense to us.
preacher4truth, I said that I now read the KJV instead of the NASB, due to the fact that the NASB version attributes the alienation from God due to raisin cakes (pastry).

NASB Hosea 3:1 Again the Lord said to me, "Go love a woman now in love with a paramour, herself an adulteress, besides; such is the way the Lord loves His people Israel, even though they keep turning to other gods and love raisin cakes."
 
Mar 14, 2011
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#39
God didn't preserve His words for us today? If so, where are His words, plural?
Not in any english bible. Already proven (the word baptizo, which off course you did not respond to because you KNOW I am right.

The english language is flawed. That alone prevents a perfect translation.
 
Mar 14, 2011
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#40
preacher4truth, I said that I now read the KJV instead of the NASB, due to the fact that the NASB version attributes the alienation from God due to raisin cakes (pastry).

NASB Hosea 3:1 Again the Lord said to me, "Go love a woman now in love with a paramour, herself an adulteress, besides; such is the way the Lord loves His people Israel, even though they keep turning to other gods and love raisin cakes."
And as shown you. Raisin cakes was something that was pagan, and even offered to pagan Gods.

So it is easy to think that Israel was using them in this way. Of course you would have to be ther to know this. Which is why historical perspective is required in hermeneutics