What does John mean in verse 18? Does this mean all true Christians stop sinning?
There is no such thing as a "true christian". That's a word made up by elitist people who wish to claim to be more than the rest of the people.
To answer this question we must go to the Greek and see what this word in the original language means.
which word? hamartia? Hamartano? Or was it another? It would be nice to know where you are coming from here.
Strong's list the definition for this word as:
Please take a good peak at definitions 4 and 5. Now let's look at how other translations have dealt with this verse.
The NLT is technically a paraphrase but here it holds to the nuance of definition 4 and 5 above. It is saying we do not live in a life style of sin as the word does. This makes great sense when we look at a verse before 18:
there is nothing mentioned here about a lifestyle. You are putting that INTO the verse. I went to my other computer to see which it is. it's hamartano, it's a verb. It means to sin. it means commit a sin. There is nothing of any "lifestyle" in the word or the context. I'm going to beg of you to stop, at this point, adding words into scripture to suit your theology, and let's both work at making sure our theology fits with what the Bible actually says.
It makes no sense at all for John to say in one verse that we no longer walk in sin when just two verse before he says "If a brother sins..." So clearly this is not implying we stop all sins once we become a Christian. It means we no longer walk in a lifestyle of sin.
THE LIFESTYLE word you want to "write into" the verse here is found in 1 John 1, and Gal 5:16. It's PERIPATEO which means literally WALK. However, here, in this verse, you have to erase words and change words to suit how you described it. The problem with your "if a brother sins" argument is you presume the imaginary term "true Xian". Then you presume you would know what one was. Here, let's stick to the AUTHOR'S idea of who he was discussing. In 1 john 1 (NOTE I HAVE GIVEN THIS EXPLANATION 3 TIMES NOW, if you were UNRUDE enough to address it once, I wouldn't have to type it over and over and over...)... John says HE is in fellowship with GOD and those he writes to are not. BUT THOSE HE WRITES TO has Christ as their mediator. SO obviously the people he writes to are "some sorta Xian", right? Christ doesn't mediate for an unrepentant sinner until they repent, right? So, They are "Xian" but not in fellowship with God yet.
To be in fellowship with God you must walk in the light, (there is the peripateo word, your lifestyle concept) AS HE DOES. If you walk in the light AS HE DOES, if you sin, then HE must have sinned as well, else it's NOT AS HE DOES. So make up your mind, which is it?
The people he writes to, in second chapter around 6-8 John tells them, they are getting close, they only need a little more darkness (sin) to be washed away. OOOPSIE, they aren't in fellowship until the darkness is washed away, as we remember back in chapter 1, THERE IS NO DARKNESS IN HIM.
So to be in fellowship with HIM you must have the darkness washed away, and walk in the light as HE does.
Now later in 3:6 John continues that if you still sin, you do not know God and haven't met Him. NOW this is discussing those who ABIDE IN HIM, not just those under Grace with Christ as a mediator. See, John and His coterie abide in Him, and are trying to help these other believers get from not in fellowship to BEING in fellowship. That's why 2:1 says, I write this so you MAY not sin.
And then in 3:9 He clearly states if you are born of God you will not continue to sin (lifestyle there, or sinful nature) in fact you CAN NOT SIN. NOw the word for sin there, and the word for NOT there, literally, and with no exception means CAN NOT SIN. AS IN CAN NOT COMMIT A SIN. That's what it means.
See, my view is consistent with the key topics from the beginning of the letter to now. This was already presented. If you continue the conversation and don't engage this time, I'm ignoring you as a blowhard to not waste my time on. I mean that bluntly, but respectfully. It's not personal, but I really won't waste time with you if that is the case.
The link I posted twice, which you did not read says this of verse 16:
Which you presume again. And I've answered already, and you ignored and choose to try to rewrite history to support your attempts to discredit me. Isn't that a rule to not do on here?
Note how the NLT translates this verse: 18 We know that God’s children do not make a practice of sinning, for God’s Son holds them securely, and the evil one cannot touch them.
I can't help it if you shopped for a translation to add a word you need to make your argument. It is not in the greek. The "practice" word. DOES NOT EXIST.They add the word, because they do not understand what John could mean, and determine, "therefore he left a word out". And so they put it in there. Well intentioned, but wrong.
If John is claiming we are to walk in sinless perfection then his earlier statements (1John 5:16, 1:8) make no sense at all as he says we clearly do sin, but we no longer walk in this in a lifestyle focused on sin.
Whatever. I've addressed this already.
If you would like to learn more about this I sincerly hope you read the link I provided twice, and now three times (
Is it Possible Not to sin? ) to help you understand scripture more accurately.
I HAVE READ IT. I ALREADY TOLD YOU I WILL NOT ADDRESS HIS ARGUMENTS, EITHER YOU MAKE THEM AND DEFEND THEM AS YOUR OWN or BRING MR. NALLY here to discuss them. I WILL NOT work against HIS MINISTRY WORK, without him being present to speak for his works. At least HE understands what he wrote down, and isn't just parroting other people's thoughts as if he knew something when he didn't.