What Laws are still valid to christians

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john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
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This is true. What it really boils down to is the 4th commandment. You (and others) can't see how love fulfills that commandment.
You are correct, I can't see how fulfilling the fourth Commandment does away with it.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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You are correct, I can't see how fulfilling the fourth Commandment does away with it.
It doesn't do away with it, it fulfills its requirements. When you love you fulfill the purpose for that law, i.e., trusting GOD to sanctify you.
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
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It doesn't do away with it, it fulfills its requirements. When you love you fulfill the purpose for that law, i.e., trusting GOD to sanctify you.
So, fulfilling it's requirements means we do not have to do this any more?
 
Sep 4, 2012
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So, fulfilling it's requirements means we do not have to do this any more?
When GOD tells you to trust him to sanctify you through faith, do you think it pleases him when you try to be sanctified by law?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
So, fulfilling it's requirements means we do not have to do this any more?
so you mean to tell us you CAN fulfill its requirements?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Oh, that's good thought. I think that's surely it's true and Jesus had learned how to listened Heaven Father. But I am also think that is the Scripture was as a tool to understanding God's will and understanding what is happening within Son of Man. And without this knowledge we have not a change to learned from His experience.

Heb 2:18 For because he himself has suffered when tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted.

Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.

So in that point His soul has been attacked from what is come without and He needed learn how to deal with thoughts and other temptations whatsoever.
yes. But he did not use the law. The law says do not do this. It does not tell us how to accomplish this. or what to do. it just says don't.

When he healed the guy on the sabbath, I am sure the last thing on his mind was one of the commandments of God. I am sure he only thought of helping others. Which we all should do.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
The Law is simply a description of how the Father and Christ have lived for eternity. They do not have to think about, or struggle to keep the Law, the way thive is described by the Law. It is we who have human nature and are susceptible to the broadcasting of Satan and the demons. We struggle to live as they live.

Yes. We struggle NOT because of the law. But because of our position in adam. We are so busy trying to satisfy self (which is what the old nature is) and less busy worrying about putting the needs of others over our own needs. The more we mature, the more our position in adam (self) fades away, and the more our mind of christ (others centered) comes.

Christ was completly others centered. That is why he did not sin. We are not this, and can not be this 100 %. Thats why we will never live up to the standard imposed by God (the law)
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
God's love is unconditional, salvation is conditional.

Then Gods love is not unconditional

Again you contradict yourself with your statement
 
Sep 4, 2012
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yes. But he did not use the law. The law says do not do this. It does not tell us how to accomplish this. or what to do. it just says don't.

When he healed the guy on the sabbath, I am sure the last thing on his mind was one of the commandments of God. I am sure he only thought of helping others. Which we all should do.
He was led of the spirit, not the law.
 
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Yury

Guest
Would that be the difference between flesh and the Spirit of God? That all flesh needs is to be born again by God the Father?
I'm not sure I understand you question, sir. Could you please rephrase that one? Thank you :)
 
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Yury

Guest
Did he not do whatever Father told him and say whatever Father told him, by the Holy Ghost that was in him?
Did he not send this very same Holy Ghost to us the believers, to lead us the same as he was led?
Yes, He did. But the queston is how He had learned to discern what is coming from Father or from Human or Satan uncluding also what they all speak through the exact the same Word.

Matt 4:5-7 Then the devil took him to the holy city, had him stand on the highest point of the temple, 6 and said to him, “If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down. For it is written, ‘He will command his angels concerning you’ and ‘with their hands they will lift you up, so that you will not strike your foot against a stone.’” Jesus said to him, “Once again it is written: ‘You are not to put the Lord your God to the test.’”


Matt 16:23 But he turned and said to Peter, “Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to me, because you are not setting your mind on God’s interests, but on man’s.”



And besides, isn't God able to talk to person through His Law? Certanly Jesus did whatever Father told Him and said whatever Father told Him through the Scripture.
 
Jan 27, 2013
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And besides, isn't God able to talk to person through His Law? Certanly Jesus did whatever Father told Him and said whatever Father told Him through the Scripture.
then you need, to know, the difference between, the logus and the rhema word of god.

just like jesus, showed thought scripture.
 

Elin

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Jan 19, 2013
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Fulfill can have many meanings. One meaning is to carry out. Need to look at Jesus actions to see what the context is for fulfill. Considering just before he ascended into heaven he was telling his followers to learn the law from the pharisees but not do as they do, it starts to become apparent to me what context fulfill is.
Where is that found in the NT?
 

Elin

Banned
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin said:
Nor does the NT word of God say the law has been "translated."

It says it has been set aside (Heb 7:18-19), abolished (Eph 2:15), and replaced
with the law of Christ (1 Co 9:21).
Hebrews 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Changed = metatithemi = transfer; transpose; change (essentially, "translated")
Change = metathesis = (from metatithemi) transfer from one place to another; to change (i.e. translate)

So, yes, it was changed in a sense. But the sense in which it was changed was that there was a copy of it in Heaven (i.e. transfered from Earth to Heaven in the sense of being translated).
Metatithemi is "to transfer to another place," "to place differently."

The sense in which it was changed is explained exactly in Heb 7:18-19, Eph 2:15; 1Co 9:21:
it is set aside, abolished, replaced, respectively.

Remember that abstract concepts, when translated, always leave behind their original forms
There is no Biblical warrant for this human thinking.

Covenants have been replaced;
and the Sinaitic Covenant, the Levitical priesthood and the Mosaic laws have been set aside, abolished and replaced.

The Law is not unprofitable, it is "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness [...]"
That's "all Scripture," not "the Law."
Let's not tamper with the word of God to support our theology.

Essentially it comes down to what people are comfortable with and what they want for their lives.
Not in my neck o' the woods. . .it comes down to the authoritative word of God, understood in the light of the revelation spoken by the Son in these last days (Heb 1:1-2), through the writers of the NT.

Some people just want a more involved daily relationship with God, to be constantly reminded of God, to have plenty of opportunities to serve him and make him happy. God's regulations are there for those who want this close walk with him.
And those in whose hearts is the love of the Holy Spirit are covered over with opportunities to show that love in service to God.
 
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Yury

Guest
yes. But he did not use the law. The law says do not do this. It does not tell us how to accomplish this. or what to do. it just says don't.
When he healed the guy on the sabbath, I am sure the last thing on his mind was one of the commandments of God. I am sure he only thought of helping others. Which we all should do.
I do understand where are coming from. But cannot saying that He did not use the law for that purpose with 100%. I believe that it is more possible that He did.
And also I believe that the whole Scripture, uncluding the Law contains SOMETHING IMMEASURABLY MORE than just a set of rules, historical edits and moral imprints.
 

homwardbound

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2012
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Assuming
a. Cornelius and his family were devout, God fearing and prayed to God regularly yet ignored the law regarding clean and unclean, if not the whole law, when the OT was the only scripture available at that point in time.
b. Cornelius knew Peter is a Jew and yet served him pork chop and shrimp fro dinner.
Quite possible.
under the Law it was unlawful for Peter to even enter a Gentile house, In Acts where Peter came there by the lead of God, and said this to Cornelius, about how it is unlawful, yet God told him that God has cleaned all things and not to call anything unclean.
And as Paul also says;
Romans 14:14 I know, and am persuaded by the Lord Jesus, that there is nothing unclean of itself: but to him that esteemeth any thing to be unclean, to him it is unclean

So tell me could this have anything to do with how I handle the clean things. Love God's way or my selfish attitude of the flesh that I was originally born with?
And Peter entered the house and preached and the Holy Ghost came upon them as well as the first chosen, even before any water Baptism. Now if they had not been water Baptized after the reception of the Holy Ghost from God a gift from God. Would God have withdrawn this gift?
Just some food for thought?
 

homwardbound

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2012
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The different words used for 'fulfill' in Matthew 5:17 and Matthew 5:18 are a good example of where the confusion on the word fulfill is coming from.

Matthew 5:17 Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.

fulfill = pleroo = to fill up

Matthew 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

fulfill = ginomai = to come to pass (of events). There are still plenty of prophecies that must be fulfilled in this respect (i.e. come to pass). Jesus only fulfilled so many of these prophecies so far.
The Laws fulfillment in me was and is I am weak in the flesh and can't obey it in its entirety. so I need the one who did for me and thus turn to God to fill me (not get me to feel) with his type of love only received in the Spirit of God, by the resurrected Christ. That is the purpose of the Law to show me my need for Christ, the only one who ever obeyed and understood the whole truth of Father. Christ gives to us, we quit the feeling of and get filled of the Holy Ghost, and thus walk as Chirst walked 100% dependent on Father to do the lead
 

homwardbound

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2012
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Hi H

We will agree to disagree. :)
I am fine with that and thanks for that love, knowing God does just love us all, and that it is God that gets his children to stand so I am okay.
Romans 14:4 Who art thou that judgest another man’s servant? to his own master he standeth or falleth. Yea, he shall be holden up: for God is able to make him stand.

So I know to listen to others and not condemn anyone, for God through Christ does not condemn me, Again thanks
 

homwardbound

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2012
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Wanna show me where the scripture makes that distinction?
Galatians 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.

So since "I" can't be perfect in doing all the Laws. Such as I can't hold ten Apples under water at the same time with just two hands, neither can "I" fulfill the Law as Christ did.
So when "I see this as Paul who was Saul did see this and wrote about this battle of flesh wanting to fulfill Law, showing in first in Romans 1-5. Then if we did not still get it, we are shown in Rom. 6-8. Then if not there Corinthians, and if not here Galatians, and Phil.
It is all over the new testament in Doctrinal form to each of the people he wrote to, and all bottom line boils down to the fight between Flesh and the Spirit of God
John 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

Well that is plain, only through Christ and not Law.
Hebrews 12:2 looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

Law is there to show ones need for the Savior.
Galatians 3:23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.

Does that sound as if Law and Faith can mix, when it says before Faith came we were kept under Law. Which today is now past tense been revealed, yet not all see this truth as done in Christ. Only God can reveal this truth to the ones that believe, that God has accepted.
Hope to have answered what you were looking for
 

homwardbound

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2012
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God's love is unconditional, salvation is conditional.
Only upon whether one truly believes or not, period and if one does not believe, that is Blasphemy to the Holy Ghost that will not ever be forgiven. for that is why Christ sent the Holy Ghost to love through the believers to tell others of this amazing truth, of what Christ has done for them, so believe God and be saved
Do you believe God in this scripture below?
Colossians 1:22 in the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight:

tell me if the above is truth, how can anyone ever get more Holy? Can anyone improve on that scripture above?
So if one keeps the Faith, well read it from Col 1:1 and ask God to show you truth that is only found in God? Thanks