What was the LAW that was added?

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Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#41
Is it a law for us to follow after the Spirit? What if we choose to walk after the flesh?
The Law is written on stones given by Moses. You know what it says.

If we choose to walk after the flesh we don't love God.





Passage? I have never seen any where state we have a "magnification of Moses law". Seeing it has nothign to do with it.
Matthew 5:21-22
21 Ye have heard that it was said of them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

This is what Jesus Christ was doing here. He was magnifying God's Law. He was showing you the bar of perfection according to the Law is a lot higher than what was understood.

Matthew 5:27-28
27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.




"THE school master" was the law of Moses, for the Jews. NOt me and you. We can bypass the law and come to Directly to Christ.
You are wrong about that. People are ashamed and not able to come before God easily because they know in their hearts that they have broken His Law. No one bypasses God's Law.

Are you saying their are laws for those who are not Christians, but afterwards then we are law free?



Christians are not under the Law. Christians follow after Christ and He produces fruit in their lives, against which there is no law.

Galatians 3:23-25
23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
 
F

feedm3

Guest
#42
The Law is written on stones given by Moses. You know what it says.
Yes that's my Point THE LAW is pertianing to the The law of Moses, NOT ALL laws in general. You are saying we have no Law at all under the NT, becuase you are twisting the meaning of the passages that ONLY apply to the taking away of the law of Moses.

We have many Laws under the NT.

If we choose to walk after the flesh we don't love God.
Would you say that is a law concerning how we love God in the NT?




Matthew 5:21-22
21 Ye have heard that it was said of them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:
22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

This is what Jesus Christ was doing here. He was magnifying God's Law. He was showing you the bar of perfection according to the Law is a lot higher than what was understood.

Matthew 5:27-28
27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
THese passages only further prove my point. Jesus here is giving NEW laws under the NEW Covanant making the OT obselte when it comes to laws.

"BUT I SAY UNTO" is the introduction of the new law we are to abide under.




You are wrong about that. People are ashamed and not able to come before God easily because they know in their hearts that they have broken His Law. No one bypasses God's Law.
What you said here does not have anyting to do with what I said. I said the law of Moses was a tutor for the JEWS to being them unto Christ.

It is not a schoolmaster for me and you to bring us to Chrsit. We have the NT, we do not have to serve the shadow to bring us to the true image, we can go strait to the true image - Chrsit.

You use these passages to teach that ALL law in gerneral are only tutuors, and that is not what is being said.

You have been showing passages that prove the law of Moses has been taken away and PRETENDING you dont understand them, and pretend they mean we have no laws at all.

Then you turn around and show me passages PROVING we do have laws. Are you purposely trying to be confusing?






Christians are not under the Law. Christians follow after Christ and He produces fruit in their lives, against which there is no law.
Agreed. We are not under "the law". When have I said we need to go back to the law of Moses?

This is another circular reasoning method your using to prove what you cant.

Does the "the law" mean the law of Moses, or ALL laws/commands even in the NT?

Galatians 3:23-25
23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
Yes, why do you keep posting these passages KNOWING that we are not talking about IF we are or are not still under the LAW OF MOSES?

I agree we are not.

I dont agree that means we do not have any laws at all under the NT.

Seeing how you did not answer the questions I asked, you also know we do have laws.

But you want to pretend like you dont get it, and always go back to proving we are not under the law of Moses. This is the best example of a STRAW MAN ARGUMENT

HERE THEY ARE AGAIN IN CASE YOU MUST MISSED THEM
1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication

According to these passages:

1. Is I Thess 4:1-3 written to Christians?

2. Are the commands that they received from the Lord laws?

3. Is them doing the will of God by abstaining from fornication a law against fornication for the Christian?

4. Are these passage only intended for those who have not accepted Christ?
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#43
THese passages only further prove my point. Jesus here is giving NEW laws under the NEW Covanant making the OT obselte when it comes to laws.

"BUT I SAY UNTO" is the introduction of the new law we are to abide under.
No, this unravels your whole point. The Lord Jesus Magnified God's Law. He didn't make a new law. In fact, He Himself says "I have not come to destroy the Law but to fulfill it".

IF He were making new laws and throwing the old laws away like you are trying to say, then you are making the Lord Jesus a liar. I don't think you are trying to do that on purpose, I just think your pride is stopping you from gaining wisdom.






What you said here does not have anyting to do with what I said. I said the law of Moses was a tutor for the JEWS to being them unto Christ.

It is not a schoolmaster for me and you to bring us to Chrsit. We have the NT, we do not have to serve the shadow to bring us to the true image, we can go strait to the true image - Chrsit.

You use these passages to teach that ALL law in gerneral are only tutuors, and that is not what is being said.

You have been showing passages that prove the law of Moses has been taken away and PRETENDING you dont understand them, and pretend they mean we have no laws at all.

Then you turn around and show me passages PROVING we do have laws. Are you purposely trying to be confusing?

All men are sinners and all men know it. They know it because they know the 10 commandents and they know they have broken them. Only after a person comes to grips with this can they be saved by the Lord Jesus Christ.

There is nothing to be saved FROM if you think that the 10 commandmants don't apply to you.




Agreed. We are not under "the law". When have I said we need to go back to the law of Moses?

This is another circular reasoning method your using to prove what you cant.

Does the "the law" mean the law of Moses, or ALL laws/commands even in the NT?

Yes, why do you keep posting these passages KNOWING that we are not talking about IF we are or are not still under the LAW OF MOSES?

I agree we are not.

I dont agree that means we do not have any laws at all under the NT.

Seeing how you did not answer the questions I asked, you also know we do have laws.

But you want to pretend like you dont get it, and always go back to proving we are not under the law of Moses. This is the best example of a STRAW MAN ARGUMENT

HERE THEY ARE AGAIN IN CASE YOU MUST MISSED THEM
1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication

According to these passages:

1. Is I Thess 4:1-3 written to Christians?

2. Are the commands that they received from the Lord laws?

3. Is them doing the will of God by abstaining from fornication a law against fornication for the Christian?

4. Are these passage only intended for those who have not accepted Christ?

If you don't understand by now, I can't make you understand. You will just have to pray for wisdom and discernment.

The best I can do for you is this; Go write down the 10 commandments from Exodus. Then write down all the laws you think are new in the NT. Then see if ANY of those "new laws" go against any of the 10 commandments. If they do not then you should start to see what I've been telling you.

If you water down God's perfect laws to the point where you think you are keeping them in the will of your own flesh then you are confused and are making the same mistake as the Pharisees before you.

Romans 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.
 
E

Eccl12and13

Guest
#44
It is error to think that some of God's Law doesn't apply and some of it does.

It is error to teach that some of God's Law has passed away and some hasn't.

It is error to teach that some of God's Laws or ordinances are less important than others.

It is error to try and replace the Lords easy yoke for the Heavy Yoke of the Law.

The Law requires work, everytime, all the time. We are not saved by work, we are saved by grace. No matter the good intentions of the one trying to teach you about the law, it is only ultimately designed to bring you to Christ. If it hasn't brought you to Christ yet, you are still under it. The school master still has work to do.

If you have come to Christ then you know this;
Galatians 5:18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

You missed 2;

"What law of God did He not like?"

"What law of God had to be changed?"

God's word is VERY clear concerning the above two questions. And scripture tells us exactly WHICH law it is that God never liked AND had to be changed.

Do you know the set of laws that God never liked AND had to be changed?


And the answer is not, "ALL OF IT"


I have posted the answer to ALL of the following questions,

What law of God required the 'works' that Paul speaks of?
What law of God required the 'deeds' that Paul speaks of?
What law of God was only to be around for a short time?
What law of God could not make the comers there unto perfect?
What law of God did He not like?
What law of God had to be changed?
What law of God was to be a school master to man?
What law of God was nailed to His cross?

If you truly seek to know the set of laws that answer ALL of the above questions, it can be found in the following posts;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2



.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#45
You missed 2;




God's word is VERY clear concerning the above two questions. And scripture tells us exactly WHICH law it is that God never liked AND had to be changed.

Do you know the set of laws that God never liked AND had to be changed?


And the answer is not, "ALL OF IT"


I have posted the answer to ALL of the following questions,

What law of God required the 'works' that Paul speaks of?
What law of God required the 'deeds' that Paul speaks of?
What law of God was only to be around for a short time?
What law of God could not make the comers there unto perfect?
What law of God did He not like?
What law of God had to be changed?
What law of God was to be a school master to man?
What law of God was nailed to His cross?

If you truly seek to know the set of laws that answer ALL of the above questions, it can be found in the following posts;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2



.

No. There is no Law of God that needed to be changed. There is no Law of God that He did not "like".

You are trying to do the same thing as feedm3. You are trying to exchange one of set of Laws, saying they are obsolete, and replacing them with another set.

They are the same Law.

Matthew 5:17-18
17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
 
E

Eccl12and13

Guest
#46
No. There is no Law of God that needed to be changed.


Heb.7
[11] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
[12] For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


Now....what was that you were saying again?


Do you know which law it was that GOD said needed to be changed above?


.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#47
Heb.7
[11] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
[12] For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


Now....what was that you were saying again?


Do you know which law it was that GOD said needed to be changed above?


.
There is no Law of God that needed changing.

Hebrews 7 is describing the gospel to Jews and showing them that the Law of God written on stones is being replaced with the Gospel of Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 7 is explaining that the Law was never intended to make anyone perfect before God. That which the Jews thought was making them perfect was being replaced with that which would make them perfect.
 
E

Eccl12and13

Guest
#48
There is no Law of God that needed changing.

Hebrews 7 is describing the gospel to Jews and showing them that the Law of God written on stones is being replaced with the Gospel of Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 7 is explaining that the Law was never intended to make anyone perfect before God. That which the Jews thought was making them perfect was being replaced with that which would make them perfect.
You keep saying that no law needed to be changed.

But guess what? God's word keeps saying the following;

Heb.7
[11] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
[12] For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


God's word says, "...there is made of necessity a change also of the law."

So who should the reader believe in this case? You, that claim a law didn't have to be changed? Or....the word of God?

I presented to you (2) posts that gives the answer to questions that I asked the forum. One of those questions was, "What law of God had to be changed?"

Had you read the posts I suggested for you, This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1 & 2, you would know just which law it is that God needed to change. But please note....God did NOT do away with the law, He just had to change a requirement of the law.

Do you know which law it is that God had to change?

.
 
E

Eccl12and13

Guest
#49
There is no Law of God that needed changing.
Now here's is the interesting thing about the (2) posts I suggested that you read.......

After over 30 views each.........Not ONE objection thus far! And I'm sure some of the 30 views are from those that have replied with the same answer as you.


Why not pray to God for wisdom and understanding, go ahead and read the (2) post; This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1 & 2., and see if anything can be learned.


After all....God's word DOES say, without a shadow of a doubt, that a law HAD to be changed;


"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law."

.
 
F

feedm3

Guest
#50
No. There is no Law of God that needed to be changed. There is no Law of God that He did not "like".

You are trying to do the same thing as feedm3. You are trying to exchange one of set of Laws, saying they are obsolete, and replacing them with another set.

They are the same Law.

Matthew 5:17-18
17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Thats why you wont answer the questions I pose because you know you cant be consistent.

Your trying to take a law that has been fulfilled, and convince me that we are not under any laws at all.

Question is Matt 5:17-18 speaking of the law of Moses, or ALL laws in general?

Next:

Which law is binding? According to you grandpa, neither are binding, because we are not under any law at all:

Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. <-----This is the law that has been fulfilled, we, nor the Jews are not under it anymore

Mat 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

<----Jesus showed Due 24:1 is no more binding, because it has been fulfilled.

Now we are under Matt 19:9, BUT YOU SAY WE ARE NOT, BECAUSE WE HAVE NO LAWS AT ALL

SO IS MATTHEW 19:9 BINDING?

OH AND HERE THESE ARE AGAIN:

HERE THEY ARE AGAIN IN CASE YOU MUST MISSED THEM
1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication

According to these passages:

1. Is I Thess 4:1-3 written to Christians?

2. Are the commands that they received from the Lord laws?

3. Is them doing the will of God by abstaining from fornication a law against fornication for the Christian?

4. Are these passage only intended for those who have not accepted Christ?
 
May 29, 2012
530
1
0
#51
We still have those laws that were written on stone. There will people that will be punished for breaking those laws that were written in stone, therefore they cannot be the ones that Paul speaks of that are no more. Nor can they be the laws that were added since they ALL were around since the beginning.


.
Love is the commandment that's always been here. When we step outside of that, we eat of the knowledge of good and evil.

No man needs a list of the 10 commandments. To love your neighbor is to fulfill ALL of the law.

Cain did not have these two tablets, but his own conscience bearing witness accused him of wrongdoing. He had stepped out of love into a knowledge of sin!
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#52
Thats why you wont answer the questions I pose because you know you cant be consistent.

Your trying to take a law that has been fulfilled, and convince me that we are not under any laws at all.

Question is Matt 5:17-18 speaking of the law of Moses, or ALL laws in general?

Next:

Which law is binding? According to you grandpa, neither are binding, because we are not under any law at all:

Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. <-----This is the law that has been fulfilled, we, nor the Jews are not under it anymore

Mat 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
<----Jesus showed Due 24:1 is no more binding, because it has been fulfilled.

Now we are under Matt 19:9, BUT YOU SAY WE ARE NOT, BECAUSE WE HAVE NO LAWS AT ALL

SO IS MATTHEW 19:9 BINDING?

OH AND HERE THESE ARE AGAIN:


HERE THEY ARE AGAIN IN CASE YOU MUST MISSED THEM
1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication

According to these passages:

1. Is I Thess 4:1-3 written to Christians?

2. Are the commands that they received from the Lord laws?

3. Is them doing the will of God by abstaining from fornication a law against fornication for the Christian?

4. Are these passage only intended for those who have not accepted Christ?
Its not that Saved Christians don't have any Law, its just that they aren't under them.

All the Law still applies. Only its power is broken in the Lord Jesus Christ. But a person must be Saved by God in order to know this.

The Law is for the reprobate, the transgressor, in order to bring them to the point of knowing they are a sinner and need mercy, forgiveness and Salvation. In order to recieve this mercy, forgiveness and Salvation a person has to come to Jesus Christ and ask.

I have answered all your questions, you just don't get it. You are using a sleight of hand trick that you don't even know you are using, attempting to put saved Christians back under the Law and its condemnation.

BY the way, did you find any "New laws" that aren't covered by the 10 commandments???
 
F

feedm3

Guest
#53
I have answered all your questions, you just don't get it. You are using a sleight of hand trick that you don't even know you are using, attempting to put saved Christians back under the Law and its condemnation.
Two things if you would:
1. Point to your post where you answred my questions. I went back already and looked could not find them.
2. Show where I ever posted we should return to the law of Moses.

If you can do this then I will consider what your saying. If you cannot then why are you saying it?

BY the way, did you find any "New laws" that aren't covered by the 10 commandments???
Oh, you mean you expect me to answer your questions, even though you have not answered mine?

Okay I will, because I can, and dont need to run from anything.

Laws that were NOT covered by the 10 commands:'

1. The NT law concerning marriage. - Matt 19:9
This is not found in the OT, nor in the 10 commands, ONLY in the NT, making fornication the ONLY reason for divorce.

2. Lust - No where in the OT or the 10 commands is the "lust of the heart" spoken of. Jesus said that if look upon another woman to lust after we have committed adultery in our hearts. - Matt 5:28

3. The Lord's supper - no need to explain that I hope.

There are many more, but I guess I will let you deal with these. BTW there are a ton of laws in Lev, Ex, and Due that are not mentioned in the 10 commands. So where your going with this I have no idea.

Now I have explicitly answered your question, please do the same concerning I Thess 4.
 
E

Eccl12and13

Guest
#54
BY the way, did you find any "New laws" that aren't covered by the 10 commandments???
James 2
[9] But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.

Here is one that is NOT covered by the 10 but we are yet to keep, for if not we commit sin!


.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#55
You keep saying that no law needed to be changed.

But guess what? God's word keeps saying the following;

Heb.7
[11] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
[12] For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.


God's word says, "...there is made of necessity a change also of the law."

So who should the reader believe in this case? You, that claim a law didn't have to be changed? Or....the word of God?

I presented to you (2) posts that gives the answer to questions that I asked the forum. One of those questions was, "What law of God had to be changed?"

Had you read the posts I suggested for you, This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1 & 2, you would know just which law it is that God needed to change. But please note....God did NOT do away with the law, He just had to change a requirement of the law.

Do you know which law it is that God had to change?

.
There is no Law of God that needed to be changed. His Law is perfect. You are misunderstanding.

For the Priesthood to change the Law that says the Priest must come from the Levites had to change. That is the only Law that had to change. The Priesthood now comes from the order of Melchizedek.

What needed to be changed was the High Priest. We needed a High Priest who was perfect before God.

That is what is being described to the Hebrews in the book of Hebrews.



 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#56
Two things if you would:
1. Point to your post where you answred my questions. I went back already and looked could not find them.
2. Show where I ever posted we should return to the law of Moses.

If you can do this then I will consider what your saying. If you cannot then why are you saying it?


You don't understand that the Lord Jesus was MAGNIFYING Gods perfect Law. I tried to show you this, but you don't get it.

BY your misunderstanding, you are actually pointing people back to the law of Moses, though you obviously don't realize it.

Isaiah 42:20-21
20 Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not.
21 The Lord is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable.

Oh, you mean you expect me to answer your questions, even though you have not

answered mine?
Okay I will, because I can, and dont need to run from anything.

Laws that were NOT covered by the 10 commands:'

1. The NT law concerning marriage. - Matt 19:9
This is not found in the OT, nor in the 10 commands, ONLY in the NT, making fornication the ONLY reason for divorce.

2. Lust - No where in the OT or the 10 commands is the "lust of the heart" spoken of. Jesus said that if look upon another woman to lust after we have committed adultery in our hearts. - Matt 5:28

3. The Lord's supper - no need to explain that I hope.

There are many more, but I guess I will let you deal with these. BTW there are a ton of laws in Lev, Ex, and Due that are not mentioned in the 10 commands. So where your going with this I have no idea.

Now I have explicitly answered your question, please do the same concerning I Thess 4.
I don't know how you don't see lust of the heart as a magnification of thou shalt not covet another mans wife. That was the easy one. The others you have listed are more difficult to show. If you don't get the easy ones how will you proceed to the more difficult?

The Lord was showing you that sin starts in the mind, first. He was using the 10 commandments to show you this.

It doesn't seem like you are trying to gain anything but only that you wish to win some argument. That's fine.

You win. Go ahead and keep the laws you think you should and discard the ones you think you should discard.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#57
James 2
[9] But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.

Here is one that is NOT covered by the 10 but we are yet to keep, for if not we commit sin!


.
James 2:8-10
8 If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:
9 But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.
10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.

If you read verse 8 you will see what Law verse 9 falls under.

Do you just cut parts out of your bible like Thomas Jefferson did???
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#58
James 2:8-10
8 If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:
9 But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.
10 For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.

If you read verse 8 you will see what Law verse 9 falls under.

Do you just cut parts out of your bible like Thomas Jefferson did???
some people just do not get it.
 
F

feedm3

Guest
#59
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You don't understand that the Lord Jesus was MAGNIFYING Gods perfect Law. I tried to show you this, but you don't get it.

BY your misunderstanding, you are actually pointing people back to the law of Moses, though you obviously don't realize it.

Isaiah 42:20-21
20 Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not.
21 The Lord is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable.



I don't know how you don't see lust of the heart as a magnification of thou shalt not covet another mans wife. That was the easy one. The others you have listed are more difficult to show. If you don't get the easy ones how will you proceed to the more difficult?

The Lord was showing you that sin starts in the mind, first. He was using the 10 commandments to show you this.

It doesn't seem like you are trying to gain anything but only that you wish to win some argument. That's fine.

You win. Go ahead and keep the laws you think you should and discard the ones you think you should discard.


Just remember you are willfully being ignorant of what God says. You dont want to know the truth because you think by not knowing you wont be accountable.

So go ahead and keep fooling yourself. That is why you refuse to answer my questions even after I answer all of yours.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#60
[/size]

You don't understand that the Lord Jesus was MAGNIFYING Gods perfect Law. I tried to show you this, but you don't get it.

BY your misunderstanding, you are actually pointing people back to the law of Moses, though you obviously don't realize it.

Isaiah 42:20-21
20 Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not.
21 The Lord is well pleased for his righteousness' sake; he will magnify the law, and make it honourable.



I don't know how you don't see lust of the heart as a magnification of thou shalt not covet another mans wife. That was the easy one. The others you have listed are more difficult to show. If you don't get the easy ones how will you proceed to the more difficult?

The Lord was showing you that sin starts in the mind, first. He was using the 10 commandments to show you this.

It doesn't seem like you are trying to gain anything but only that you wish to win some argument. That's fine.

You win. Go ahead and keep the laws you think you should and discard the ones you think you should discard.


Like I said, some people just do not get it. That can't see what they claim contradicts what they are saying.

It is like scripture says, professing to be wise, they have become fools.