What was the LAW that was added?

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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#61
Jesus said two commands fullfill the whole law.

Love your God and your neighbor. In these two commands are found the yardstick of what is sin and what is not sin,

In these are all the commands fulfilled. Any sin which we do would be breaking one or both of these commands, Thus under law, without the blood of Christ, would condemn us. no matter what sin we commit, no matter how we try to excuse any of our sin.
And no matter how hard we try to say any particular sin is not covered under the law.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#62
Like I said, some people just do not get it. That can't see what they claim contradicts what they are saying.

It is like scripture says, professing to be wise, they have become fools.

Have you at least considered reading the 2 post that answers the question of which law was added?

Here are the posts that answer the question;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2


Do you know which law it was that God added to His already existing laws?



.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#63
There is no Law of God that needed to be changed. His Law is perfect. You are misunderstanding.


For the Priesthood to change the Law that says the Priest must come from the Levites had to change. That is the only Law that had to change.

So which is it? Did a law or didn't a law have to be changed? You have given TWO answers above!


Have you at least considered reading the 2 post that answers the question of which law was added?

Here are the posts that answer the question;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2


Do you know which law it was that God added to His already existing laws?



.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#64
Have you at least considered reading the 2 post that answers the question of which law was added?

Here are the posts that answer the question;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2


Do you know which law it was that God added to His already existing laws?



.
There were no laws added. Gods laws are the same yesterday today and tomorrow.

What was a sin in adams day was a sin in abrahams day was a sin in daniels day is a sin today and will be a sin 1000 years from now.

Jesus the same yesterday today and tomorrow.

Grandpa tried to show you this, but you refuse to see it.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#65
There were no laws added. Gods laws are the same yesterday today and tomorrow.

What was a sin in adams day was a sin in abrahams day was a sin in daniels day is a sin today and will be a sin 1000 years from now.

Jesus the same yesterday today and tomorrow.

Grandpa tried to show you this, but you refuse to see it.


Then did the Paul lie when he wrote the following;

Gal.3
[19] Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.


God's word tells us a law was added.

You claim no law was added.

Somebody is lying!!


Do you also believe there was no law that was changed, even though we have the following scripture;


Heb.7
[12] For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.



.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#66
There were no laws added. Gods laws are the same yesterday today and tomorrow.

What was a sin in adams day was a sin in abrahams day was a sin in daniels day is a sin today and will be a sin 1000 years from now.

Jesus the same yesterday today and tomorrow.

Grandpa tried to show you this, but you refuse to see it.


The law that was added AND the law that was changed are one in the same.


Have you at least considered reading the 2 post that answers the question of which law was added?

Here are the posts that answer the question;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2


Do you know which law it was that God added to His already existing laws?
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#67
Then did the Paul lie when he wrote the following;

Gal.3
[19] Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.


God's word tells us a law was added.

You claim no law was added.

Somebody is lying!!


Do you also believe there was no law that was changed, even though we have the following scripture;


Heb.7
[12] For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.



.

lol. Now I have heard everything.

The law that was added in that passage was the written law. yOU KNOW, THE ONE GIVEN MOSES, and with it the levitical priesthood. It was no different than the law God had already had. It was just in writing. I suggest you study more.

As for the priesthood being changed. Yes it did. A priest which could never remove sin by sacrifice and offering was changed to a holy priesthood by the one who gave his life as the perfect lamb who could take away sin.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#68

lol. Now I have heard everything.

The law that was added in that passage was the written law. yOU KNOW, THE ONE GIVEN MOSES, and with it the levitical priesthood. It was no different than the law God had already had. It was just in writing. I suggest you study more.

As for the priesthood being changed. Yes it did. A priest which could never remove sin by sacrifice and offering was changed to a holy priesthood by the one who gave his life as the perfect lamb who could take away sin.

Have you at least considered reading the 2 post that answers the question of which law was added?

Here are the posts that answer the question;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2


Did you know that the Levitical Priesthood will once again be reestablished and the law that was added will one again be enforce?


.
 
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feedm3

Guest
#69
Did you know that the Levitical Priesthood will once again be reestablished and the law that was added will one again be enforce?
I have heard many say this. Can you recommend some passages that support this? I would just like to read what they say so I can see where many are getting this from.

Thanks
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#70
Thats why you wont answer the questions I pose because you know you cant be consistent.


My answers are consistent you just don't understand them.
I've tried to show you how you could study this out for yourself but I must not have done a good job.


Your trying to take a law that has been fulfilled, and convince me that we are not under any laws at all. .
I'm trying to show you what a Christian really is.

Question is Matt 5:17-18 speaking of the law of Moses, or ALL laws in general?.
Your questions are kind of muddled because you have a misunderstanding.

You ask does 2+2 equal 8 or does it equal 15? And when I attempt to show you how to figure out the answer you claim I am not answering you.

Your answer is not contained inside your question like you think it is.



Which law is binding? According to you grandpa, neither are binding, because we are not under any law at all:
Deu 24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. <-----This is the law that has been fulfilled, we, nor the Jews are not under it anymore

Mat 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
<----Jesus showed Due 24:1 is no more binding, because it has been fulfilled.

Now we are under Matt 19:9, BUT YOU SAY WE ARE NOT, BECAUSE WE HAVE NO LAWS AT ALL

SO IS MATTHEW 19:9 BINDING?

OH AND HERE THESE ARE AGAIN:


HERE THEY ARE AGAIN IN CASE YOU MUST MISSED THEM
1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication

According to these passages:

1. Is I Thess 4:1-3 written to Christians?

2. Are the commands that they received from the Lord laws?

3. Is them doing the will of God by abstaining from fornication a law against fornication for the Christian?

4. Are these passage only intended for those who have not accepted Christ?
1. 1 Thess 4:1-3 is written to people trying to become Christians.

2. The commands from the Lord are the 10 Commandments magnified and purified.

3. All Law is for people who have not yet come to Christ.

4. No. The whole bible is good for reproof and instruction.

The point is you don't have to tell a Christian to abstain from the Lusts of the flesh. The Christian is following after the Spirit and faith in the Lord Jesus' mercy and forgiveness.

Answering these questions like this debases the real concept being put forth.

Gods Law is not something to be trifled with. It hasn't been done away with. It is just as eternal as God Himself. You can't just pick and choose which ones you think are valid and which ones aren't.

You misunderstand the Lord if you think He has removed portions of the 10 commandments just to put you under some of His own commands. The Lord is showing you the way to Him.


 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#71
Have you at least considered reading the 2 post that answers the question of which law was added?

Here are the posts that answer the question;

This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 1
This is the Law that God Added to His Other Laws. Part 2


Did you know that the Levitical Priesthood will once again be reestablished and the law that was added will one again be enforce?


.
why would I read it? Nothing you can say can show that a sin today was not a sin in the past. If it was so easy, you could show me here. Or are you afraid to show me?

Did you know that the levitical priesthood NEVER TOOK AWAY SIN??



10 For the law, having a shadow of the good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with these same sacrifices, which they offer continually year by year, make those who approach perfect. 2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? For the worshipers, once purified, would have had no more consciousness of sins. 3 But in those sacrifices there is a reminder of sins every year. 4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins.

11 And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. 12 But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God, 13 from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool. 14 For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.


So if the law could never save anyone, What good would the levitical priesthood be, as no one can be saved by it or through it.
 
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feedm3

Guest
#72


Thank you for finally answering. When I read you answers the only thin I could think was to wonder if you even went to I Thess 4 and read the passages, OR if you have ever even read the books of Thess.

1. 1 Thess 4:1-3 is written to people trying to become Christians.
Where is the passage that shows teh Thess were "people trying to become Christians"?

Can you paste ONE passage showing this? Sense when did Paul write those who were not Christians? Can you show ONE more book in the BIBle?

PLEASE READ THE BOOK, AND THESE PASSAGES:
1 Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians (THEY WERE MEMBERS OF THE CHURCH BUT NOT CHRISTIANS? EXPLAIN)which is in God the Father and in the Lord Jesus Christ: Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.

2 We give thanks to God always for you all, making mention of you in our prayers; 3 Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father; 4 Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God
(A NON-CHRISTIANS WORK FO FAITH??? AND NON CHRISTIAN ELECTION OF GOD????)
. 5 For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake.
6 And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, (THEY WERE FOLLOWERS OF PAUL AND THE LORD BUT NOT YET CHRISTIANS?????)

having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost:(THEY HAD THE HOLY SPIRIT BU NOT YET CHRISTIAN?)
7 So that ye were ensamples to all that believe in Macedonia and Achaia (NON CHRISTIANS WERE EXAMPLES???)

GRANDPA PLEASE EXPLAIN HOW:
1. ONE CAN BE A MEMBER OF THE CHURCH BUT NOT A CHRISTIAN
2. ONE CAN HAVE A WORK OF FAITH AND BE ELECTED BY GOD BUT NOT A CHRISTIAN?
3. FOLLOWERS OF PAUL, THE LORD, BUT NOT YET CHRISTIANS?
4. HAVE THE HOLY SPIRIT WHILE NOT HE CHRISTIANS?
5. BE AN EXAMPLE FOR BELIEVERS IN OTHER CITIES WHEN NOT YET CHRISTIANS???

2. The commands from the Lord are the 10 Commandments magnified and purified.
THEN WHY DID PAUL MENTION FORNICATION AS BEING THE COMMANDMENT OF THE LORD AND IT'S NOT MENTIONED IN THE 10 COMMANDS?

WHY DID PAUL SAY THE COMMANDS "WE GAVE YOU" BY THE LORD. DID PAUL GIVE THE 10 COMMANDS?

1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication
<---THIS IS NOT ONE OF THE 10 - EXPLAIN

3. All Law is for people who have not yet come to Christ.
THEN HOW DO THOSE WHO HAVE COME TO CHRIST SHOW WE LOVE HIM ACCORDING TO JN 14:15?

SO WHEN WE COME TO CHRIST THEN WE DO NOT HAVE TO ABSTAIN FROM FORNICATION ANYMORE?

4. No. The whole bible is good for reproof and instruction.
YES, AND FOR KNOWING THE COMMANDS OF GOD SO WE DON'T SIN.

BUT YOU DON'T BELIEVE THERE IS SUCH THING AS SIN FOR THE CHRISTIAN SINCE WE HAVE NO LAWS CORRECT? - I JN 3:4

The point is you don't have to tell a Christian to abstain from the Lusts of the flesh. The Christian is following after the Spirit and faith in the Lord Jesus' mercy and forgiveness.
PAUL DID. BUT YOU DENY THE WORDS OF THE BIBLE AND SAY THE THESSALONIAN CHURCH WERE NOT CHRISTIANS.

WHAT ABOUT THE CORINTHIANS, WERE THEY CHRISTIANS? YOU KNOW WHAT NEVER MIND ABOUT THEM, JUST FOCUS ON THE THESSALONIANS, PLEASE SHOW SOME PROOF OF WHAT YOU SAY. BECAUSE THAT ENTIRE BOOK IS AGAINST WHAT YOU JUST SAID.


Answering these questions like this debases the real concept being put forth.

Gods Law is not something to be trifled with. It hasn't been done away with. It is just as eternal as God Himself. You can't just pick and choose which ones you think are valid and which ones aren't.
YOU JUST SAID WE DO NOT HAVE ANY LAWS UNDER THE NT, AND THAT CHRISTIANS ARE NOT UNDER THE LAW.

NOW YOU SAY GOD'S LAWS ARE NOT DONE AWAY WITH???? WHICH IS IT, EITHER WE HAVE LAWS OR WE DONT, CANT BE BOTH WAYS.

You misunderstand the Lord if you think He has removed portions of the 10 commandments just to put you under some of His own commands. The Lord is showing you the way to Him.
ACCORDING TO YOU, WE HAVE NO LAWS, NOW WE HAVE THE 10 COMMANDS, AND ALL OTHER COMMANDS ARE NOT LAWS? YOUR CONFUSING BECAUSE YOU DO NOT KNOW WHAT YOU BELIEVE.

another on here not too long ago tried to use the "some were christans some wer not" argument pertaining to Gal passages that were a deathblow to his false teachings.

I asked for ONE passage showing a switch in receipts. Guess what, that was months ago and I am still waiting on that passage.

You all love to make claims like this, because it is the ONLY way you see out of having to accept what the passages say.

Yet I guarantee you, you will not be able to give ONE passage to support what you said about Thess, just as the other guy has NEVER given about Galatians.





 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#73
Thank you for finally answering. When I read you answers the only thin I could think was to wonder if you even went to I Thess 4 and read the passages, OR if you have ever even read the books of Thess.



Where is the passage that shows teh Thess were "people trying to become Christians"?

Can you paste ONE passage showing this? Sense when did Paul write those who were not Christians? Can you show ONE more book in the BIBle?

PLEASE READ THE BOOK, AND THESE PASSAGES:
1 Paul, and Silvanus, and Timotheus, unto the church of the Thessalonians (THEY WERE MEMBERS OF THE CHURCH BUT NOT CHRISTIANS? EXPLAIN)which is in God the Father and in the Lord Jesus Christ: Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.

2 We give thanks to God always for you all, making mention of you in our prayers; 3 Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father; 4 Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God(A NON-CHRISTIANS WORK FO FAITH??? AND NON CHRISTIAN ELECTION OF GOD????)
. 5 For our gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake.
6 And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, (THEY WERE FOLLOWERS OF PAUL AND THE LORD BUT NOT YET CHRISTIANS?????)

having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost:(THEY HAD THE HOLY SPIRIT BU NOT YET CHRISTIAN?)
7 So that ye were ensamples to all that believe in Macedonia and Achaia (NON CHRISTIANS WERE EXAMPLES???)

GRANDPA PLEASE EXPLAIN HOW:
1. ONE CAN BE A MEMBER OF THE CHURCH BUT NOT A CHRISTIAN
2. ONE CAN HAVE A WORK OF FAITH AND BE ELECTED BY GOD BUT NOT A CHRISTIAN?
3. FOLLOWERS OF PAUL, THE LORD, BUT NOT YET CHRISTIANS?
4. HAVE THE HOLY SPIRIT WHILE NOT HE CHRISTIANS?
5. BE AN EXAMPLE FOR BELIEVERS IN OTHER CITIES WHEN NOT YET CHRISTIANS???



THEN WHY DID PAUL MENTION FORNICATION AS BEING THE COMMANDMENT OF THE LORD AND IT'S NOT MENTIONED IN THE 10 COMMANDS?

WHY DID PAUL SAY THE COMMANDS "WE GAVE YOU" BY THE LORD. DID PAUL GIVE THE 10 COMMANDS?

1 Furthermore then we beseech you, brethren, and exhort you by the Lord Jesus, that as ye have received of us how ye ought to walk and to please God, so ye would abound more and more. 2 For ye know what commandments we gave you by the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication <---THIS IS NOT ONE OF THE 10 - EXPLAIN


THEN HOW DO THOSE WHO HAVE COME TO CHRIST SHOW WE LOVE HIM ACCORDING TO JN 14:15?

SO WHEN WE COME TO CHRIST THEN WE DO NOT HAVE TO ABSTAIN FROM FORNICATION ANYMORE?


YES, AND FOR KNOWING THE COMMANDS OF GOD SO WE DON'T SIN.

BUT YOU DON'T BELIEVE THERE IS SUCH THING AS SIN FOR THE CHRISTIAN SINCE WE HAVE NO LAWS CORRECT? - I JN 3:4



PAUL DID. BUT YOU DENY THE WORDS OF THE BIBLE AND SAY THE THESSALONIAN CHURCH WERE NOT CHRISTIANS.

WHAT ABOUT THE CORINTHIANS, WERE THEY CHRISTIANS? YOU KNOW WHAT NEVER MIND ABOUT THEM, JUST FOCUS ON THE THESSALONIANS, PLEASE SHOW SOME PROOF OF WHAT YOU SAY. BECAUSE THAT ENTIRE BOOK IS AGAINST WHAT YOU JUST SAID.


Answering these questions like this debases the real concept being put forth.



YOU JUST SAID WE DO NOT HAVE ANY LAWS UNDER THE NT, AND THAT CHRISTIANS ARE NOT UNDER THE LAW.

NOW YOU SAY GOD'S LAWS ARE NOT DONE AWAY WITH???? WHICH IS IT, EITHER WE HAVE LAWS OR WE DONT, CANT BE BOTH WAYS.



ACCORDING TO YOU, WE HAVE NO LAWS, NOW WE HAVE THE 10 COMMANDS, AND ALL OTHER COMMANDS ARE NOT LAWS? YOUR CONFUSING BECAUSE YOU DO NOT KNOW WHAT YOU BELIEVE.

another on here not too long ago tried to use the "some were christans some wer not" argument pertaining to Gal passages that were a deathblow to his false teachings.

I asked for ONE passage showing a switch in receipts. Guess what, that was months ago and I am still waiting on that passage.

You all love to make claims like this, because it is the ONLY way you see out of having to accept what the passages say.

Yet I guarantee you, you will not be able to give ONE passage to support what you said about Thess, just as the other guy has NEVER given about Galatians.





There is a difference between a "baby" christian and a Christian.

A baby needs discipling. A baby needs instruction on how to keep his flesh, and therefore his conscience, free from guilt and doubt.

That is why it is a requirement to come to Him in humility and like a child. You can't learn from Him if you think you know it all.

Abstaining from fornication does fall under the 10.

Matthew 5:27-28
27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

The Lord Jesus is magnifying God's Law for you here. The 10 Commandments.

Obviously, looking on a woman to lust after her falls under adultery which is a commandment.

Obviously, if looking at a woman to lust after her breaks a commandment then taking it the next step and fornicating with her is also breaking the same commandment.

I am not in any way telling you that there are no Laws.
I am telling you that ALL the Law is still very much in effect.

Its just that the saved, born again Christian isn't bound by it anymore, because he isn't bound by sin anymore.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#74
There is a difference between a "baby" christian and a Christian.

A baby needs discipling. A baby needs instruction on how to keep his flesh, and therefore his conscience, free from guilt and doubt.

That is why it is a requirement to come to Him in humility and like a child. You can't learn from Him if you think you know it all.

Abstaining from fornication does fall under the 10.

Matthew 5:27-28
27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

The Lord Jesus is magnifying God's Law for you here. The 10 Commandments.

Obviously, looking on a woman to lust after her falls under adultery which is a commandment.

Obviously, if looking at a woman to lust after her breaks a commandment then taking it the next step and fornicating with her is also breaking the same commandment.

I am not in any way telling you that there are no Laws.
I am telling you that ALL the Law is still very much in effect.

Its just that the saved, born again Christian isn't bound by it anymore, because he isn't bound by sin anymore.

Amen, And by it, Sin has no power over us anymore, because we are not under law, but under grace. Grace is the only thing which has the ability to break the power of sin.

If the law could do it, we would not have needed grace, or Christ.
 
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feedm3

Guest
#75
T

That is why it is a requirement to come to Him in humility and like a child. You can't learn from Him if you think you know it all.
A child accepts what he says.

Abstaining from fornication does fall under the 10.

Matthew 5:27-28
27 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery:
Wrong. This is a law concerning adultery, which is concerning the married. This has nothign to do with fornication.

This does not say anything about lusting for an unmarried woman. The Jews in fact could lust, not breaking anything until Jesus said, "any man who looks upon a woman an dlust after he has already commited adultery in his heart". There is the command, and you say we have none.
28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.
Exaclty. Here is the command Christ gave that was NOT in the law of Moses, nor the 10 commands. Adultery did not cover that in any way shape or form.

Your desperately tying to find anything to support what your saying. it does not.

This is a law for the NT, not in the 10 commands, added by Christ, so are we under it or not?

The Lord Jesus is magnifying God's Law for you here. The 10 Commandments.
Where? What are you talking about?

Obviously, looking on a woman to lust after her falls under adultery which is a commandment.
No it does not fall under adultery before Jesus gave the commandment. You know that.

A

Obviously, if looking at a woman to lust after her breaks a commandment then taking it the next step and fornicating with her is also breaking the same commandment.
Your beating around the bush. Are you now saying we are under the 10 commands and all nt laws fall under them? IF so, that is a whole other discussion. Yet though you saying this you admit we are under law.

So again, is the Christian under law of not.

I am not in any way telling you that there are no Laws.
I am telling you that ALL the Law is still very much in effect.
You have said over and over we are not under any laws, if fact scroll up and read your posts that is how we got into the conversation.

I see where this is going, you cant defend what you say, you switch your view in the middle of the conversation, and then act like that what you have been saying the whole time.

reminds me of your friend. I see why you "like' each other so much.

Typical.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#76
why would I read it? Nothing you can say can show that a sin today was not a sin in the past. If it was so easy, you could show me here. Or are you afraid to show me?



When does a law become a law? The moment God tells us either "to do something", or "not to do something"

Let's read of someone that committed a sin that NO other man ever born has ever committed;


Rom.5
[12] Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
[14] Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

So Adam committed a sin and his sin caused ALL men to receive a death sentence. But no one EVER committed the same sin as Adam. Why? Because God gave His commandment of not to listen to Satan ONLY to Adam.

Now let's read of a law no one EVER had until it was given to Moses. But before moving on......

Please understand.......ALL of God's others laws already existed. Although they were not written in stone, they still existed. They existed during Noah's day; they were the laws of God that mankind continued to break, thus causing God to bring about the great flood. They existed during the days of Abraham and were the laws that he kept that brought about righteousness. They were also the laws that men broke that caused God to destroy the city of Sodom and the surrounding suburbs. ALL of the laws that were given to Moses and the nation of Israel were ALL in place AND enforced by God BEFORE they were given to Moses.

But now we will read of a law that was ADDED by God. We will read of a law that Noah, Abraham or Issac NEVER had. It was ADDED because ALL of God's already existing laws continued to be broken. It was a law that God never liked but He allowed until the seed would come, that seed being His son Jesus Christ. It was ADDED to be a schoolmaster and to give hope. But after the seed would come, this law that was ADDED would no longer be needed. This law that was ADDED would also one day have to be changed, NOT done away with, but just one of the requirements of the law would have to be changed. Let's read of this law that was ADDED by God;

Exod.28
[1] And take thou unto thee Aaron thy brother, and his sons with him, from among the children of Israel, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office, even Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, Eleazar and Ithamar, Aaron's sons.
[43] And they shall be upon Aaron, and upon his sons, when they come in unto the tabernacle of the congregation, or when they come near unto the altar to minister in the holy place; that they bear not iniquity, and die: it shall be a statute for ever unto him and his seed after him.

So above God.....for the FIRST time, has created the office and job of the Levitical Priesthood. It became a law the moment He gave Moses instructions on how to perform the priest service. This is the first time this law was ever given.

Now.....was this law part of those that God spoke to the nation of Israel? Was this law a part of the covenant that was sealed with blood? NO IT WAS NOT!

The laws of the Levitical priesthood and their job of killing animals for the remission of sins was a law that was ADDED by God AFTER all of His others laws were confirmed with blood.


This law was NEVER given to anyone BEFORE Moses day. It was ADDED because of transgressions! It was given to be a schoolmaster to give the people hope until the seed would come. This law was ONLY given to those born a Levite, thus it needed to be changed so that Christ, from the tribe of Judah, could now perform the priest job of sacrifice. And when the seed did come the people were no longer under the schoolmaster of the laws of the Levites. When Christ died, this law was the ONLY law that was nailed to His cross.

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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#77
When does a law become a law? The moment God tells us either "to do something", or "not to do something"

Let's read of someone that committed a sin that NO other man ever born has ever committed;


Rom.5
[12] Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
[14] Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

So Adam committed a sin and his sin caused ALL men to receive a death sentence. But no one EVER committed the same sin as Adam. Why? Because God gave His commandment of not to listen to Satan ONLY to Adam.

Now let's read of a law no one EVER had until it was given to Moses. But before moving on......

Please understand.......ALL of God's others laws already existed. Although they were not written in stone, they still existed. They existed during Noah's day; they were the laws of God that mankind continued to break, thus causing God to bring about the great flood. They existed during the days of Abraham and were the laws that he kept that brought about righteousness. They were also the laws that men broke that caused God to destroy the city of Sodom and the surrounding suburbs. ALL of the laws that were given to Moses and the nation of Israel were ALL in place AND enforced by God BEFORE they were given to Moses.

But now we will read of a law that was ADDED by God. We will read of a law that Noah, Abraham or Issac NEVER had. It was ADDED because ALL of God's already existing laws continued to be broken. It was a law that God never liked but He allowed until the seed would come, that seed being His son Jesus Christ. It was ADDED to be a schoolmaster and to give hope. But after the seed would come, this law that was ADDED would no longer be needed. This law that was ADDED would also one day have to be changed, NOT done away with, but just one of the requirements of the law would have to be changed. Let's read of this law that was ADDED by God;

Exod.28
[1] And take thou unto thee Aaron thy brother, and his sons with him, from among the children of Israel, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office, even Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, Eleazar and Ithamar, Aaron's sons.
[43] And they shall be upon Aaron, and upon his sons, when they come in unto the tabernacle of the congregation, or when they come near unto the altar to minister in the holy place; that they bear not iniquity, and die: it shall be a statute for ever unto him and his seed after him.

So above God.....for the FIRST time, has created the office and job of the Levitical Priesthood. It became a law the moment He gave Moses instructions on how to perform the priest service. This is the first time this law was ever given.

Now.....was this law part of those that God spoke to the nation of Israel? Was this law a part of the covenant that was sealed with blood? NO IT WAS NOT!

The laws of the Levitical priesthood and their job of killing animals for the remission of sins was a law that was ADDED by God AFTER all of His others laws were confirmed with blood.


This law was NEVER given to anyone BEFORE Moses day. It was ADDED because of transgressions! It was given to be a schoolmaster to give the people hope until the seed would come. This law was ONLY given to those born a Levite, thus it needed to be changed so that Christ, from the tribe of Judah, could now perform the priest job of sacrifice. And when the seed did come the people were no longer under the schoolmaster of the laws of the Levites. When Christ died, this law was the ONLY law that was nailed to His cross.

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omg. Did you start your own church or something? you must be the only one who believes this.

I can not be condemned for breaking that law, for anyone outside of the tribe of levi they also could never be condemned of that law.


Colossians 2:14
having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.

This is what Christ did on the cross. He took EVERYTHING WHICH WAS AGAINST US, What you state is foolishness. and not even responding to any more.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#78

omg. Did you start your own church or something? you must be the only one who believes this.

I can not be condemned for breaking that law, for anyone outside of the tribe of levi they also could never be condemned of that law.


This is what Christ did on the cross. He took EVERYTHING WHICH WAS AGAINST US, What you state is foolishness. and not even responding to any more.

Of course someone could. For within the laws of the Levites contained what the nation of Israel had to do for the forgiveness of their sins. If they did NOT bring what the priest told them to bring their sins would NOT have been forgiven and they would have broken the law of the Levites.

This is the law that was ADDED. God gave the nation of Israel the Levitical Priesthood so that He would not have to destroy those that He chose to teach the rest of the sons of Adam, thus breaking His promise.

Above you claim,

"This is what Christ did on the cross. He took EVERYTHING WHICH WAS AGAINST US....."
The problem is that you are not aware of what it was that was against us. Was do not, kill, lie, steal covet and ALL of the rest of God's commandments against us? Are they against us now? NO!

The ONLY law that was against us was the law that was NOT ordained to life. Let's read the law that was against us;

Heb.10
[1] For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.
[2] For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.
[3] But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.

Which law could not make those that came perfect? The law that required "sacrifices". And there was only one place to find a set of laws that required sacrifices; The Levitical Priest. Then Paul tells us if those sacrifices were able to make those that came perfect they would have stopped doing them. But it didn't, so the sacrifices continued year after year. Let's continue......

[4] For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

Above Paul tells us that the blood of bulls and goats could not take away sins. But this was a law.

[6] In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.
[8] Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;

Above Paul tells us that God had no pleasure with this law of killing bulls and goats. But this was still a law.

So...what law was it that was taken out of the way, that was contrary to us and that was nailed to HIs cross as it stated below?

"Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;"


The set of laws that could not those that kept it perfect. The set of laws that God never liked but allowed until the seed would come.

God had the Levitical Priesthood laws nailed to the cross.

Because if it were as you claimed, "...He took EVERYTHING WHICH WAS AGAINST US...", that would mean there would be no way for ANYBODY to ever sin. If there are non laws how can there be transgressions?

Rom.4
[15] Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.


Readers.......the ONLY law that was nailed to the cross of Christ was the law that could not take away sins, nor did God ever like. It was the law that ended the moment Christ died on the cross.....

"And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;"
"And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom."
"And the sun was darkened, and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst."


No more veil meant no more laws of sacrifice!


And that law was the laws of the Levitical Priesthood.





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Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
#79
A child accepts what he says.



Wrong. This is a law concerning adultery, which is concerning the married. This has nothign to do with fornication.

This does not say anything about lusting for an unmarried woman. The Jews in fact could lust, not breaking anything until Jesus said, "any man who looks upon a woman an dlust after he has already commited adultery in his heart". There is the command, and you say we have none.
Exaclty. Here is the command Christ gave that was NOT in the law of Moses, nor the 10 commands. Adultery did not cover that in any way shape or form.
This is the very cruxt of your misunderstanding.

Jesus was showing us that the 10 commandments weren't designed for you to look good in church and then lust in your heart all you wanted as long as it was towards an unmarried person.

Jesus was showing us that God's perfect Law is designed to aim at sin right where it resides, in the heart.

Jesus is not giving you a new law. He is magnifying the 10 commandments so you will better be able to see the problem of sin.


Your desperately tying to find anything to support what your saying. it does not.

This is a law for the NT, not in the 10 commands, added by Christ, so are we under it or not?



Where? What are you talking about?

Jesus did not give new laws. Jesus explained the Laws that were already in place. He magnified and purified these laws so we could understand.

Matthew 5:17-20
17Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.

Jesus then magnifies the 10 commandments, showing their original purpose and intent, and shows us what is more righteous than what the Pharisees and scribes adhered to. (Just keep reading Matthew 5:21-48)





Your beating around the bush. Are you now saying we are under the 10 commands and all nt laws fall under them? IF so, that is a whole other discussion. Yet though you saying this you admit we are under law.

So again, is the Christian under law of not.



You have said over and over we are not under any laws, if fact scroll up and read your posts that is how we got into the conversation.

I see where this is going, you cant defend what you say, you switch your view in the middle of the conversation, and then act like that what you have been saying the whole time.

reminds me of your friend. I see why you "like' each other so much.

Typical.
I don't know what you are trying to say here, exactly, but I haven't changed my position at all. I've been trying to explain this to you several different ways so you can understand but you appear to be stuck.

I keep explaining to you in hopes that if anyone else adheres to what you do, they may be able to see what I am showing them.

1 Timothy 1:9-11
9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
11 According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.

The Law is not for the Christian, who has come to Christ and been born again of the spirit and saved. The Law is for everyone else.

Galatians 3:23-26
23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
25 But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.

When we come to Christ by faith there is a conversion. We are born again of the Spirit. He gives us Salvation. He causes us to walk after His statutes by producing spiritual fruit in our lives.

Galatians 5:22-24
22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith,
23 Meekness, temperance: against such there is no law.
24 And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.


I think only the Lord Jesus can show us these things. If you doubt them, go directly to Him and ask for wisdom and understanding.

If you misunderstand what Jesus is teaching you place yourself back under Law. You think you are exchanging the 10 for "Jesus Commands" but you aren't, you are placing yourself under law. Same as what the Judaizers and legalists do. It must be a pretty good trick because I see a lot falling into this trap of unbelief.
 
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Eccl12and13

Guest
#80


1 Timothy 1:9-11
9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
11 According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.


The Law is not for the Christian, who has come to Christ and been born again of the spirit and saved. The Law is for everyone else.








But once a Christian has accepted and come to Christ are they not to still KEEP those same laws? Let's read what Paul tells those that DID come to Christ. Let's read if he told them God's laws were no longer for them once they accepted and came to Christ.

1 Cor.6
[9] Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
[10] Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
[11] And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.

So those that Paul is speaking to are those that as he called them, "...such were some of you...". But then he tells us that they, "...are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.". So according to your claim, these have no need to be under God's laws.

But what does Paul tell them next? Let's read.....

[18] Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body.
1 Cor.7
[2] Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.

Paul tells those that 'WERE' sinners and 'ARE WASHED' and 'ARE SANCTIFIED' and 'ARE JUSTIFIED' to STILL keep God's commandment of not to fornicate!


Now why would Paul tell Christians, who YOU claim the law is no longer for, NOT to fornicate?


Let's read what God tells us what will happen if those that decided to accept and following His should stop keeping His commandments;

Ezek.18
[24] But when the righteous turneth away from his righteousness, and committeth iniquity, and doeth according to all the abominations that the wicked man doeth, shall he live? All his righteousness that he hath done shall not be mentioned: in his trespass that he hath trespassed, and in his sin that he hath sinned, in them shall he die.
[25] Yet ye say, The way of the Lord is not equal. Hear now, O house of Israel; Is not my way equal? are not your ways unequal?
[26] When a righteous man turneth away from his righteousness, and committeth iniquity, and dieth in them; for his iniquity that he hath done shall he die.


I would be very careful with what you post.

"Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


You claim,
"The Law is not for the Christian, who has come to Christ and been born again of the spirit and saved. The Law is for everyone else."
But that goes against what God's word tells us.

God's laws are for ALL of mankind, whether you are a sinner are a Christian, ALL are to keep the laws of God.



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