Elin,
You are failing to see that a day until the Lord is as 1,000 years to us. Thus, the Day of the Lord can last 1,000 years. Too many things happen on the Day of the Lord for it to be 1 literal earth day. As for your other passages, there are reasonable explanations for them which allows for a millennium.
You have not addressed Ac 3:21, which states that Jesus does not appear until the end of time.
It does not say "until the end of time." I'm a NKJV person but let's look at the KJV since it is the most reliable translation. "End of time" is not found in this passage!!
19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted , that your sins may be blotted out , when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; 20 And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: 21 Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began.
I read this as saying that Jesus is to remain in heaven until the "times of restitution of all things." I also read this to mean that the "times of refreshing will come from the Lord."
Restitution can mean PAYBACK or it can mean restore. We know Christ avenges and we know He restores earth to a state it once had. Earth was never in the eternal state.
We have no evidence to suggest earth as created before sin was the same as what the new heaven on earth will be. Therefore, the only major change earth experienced was the Great Flood where lifespans dramatically reduced and the landscape of the continents was flatter and likely more together. We have scripture to support increasing lifespans and islands and mountains moving around the time Christ appears. Thus this passage from Acts is NOT conclusive to your position.
You have not addressed Heb 9:27-28, that Christ comes only once more, at the end of time.
I assume you intended to include verse 26 because that is the only verse in this passage that discusses the end of the world - not time?
26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die , but after this the judgment:
28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
The first question I would have is "when did Christ appear to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself?" Wasn't it some 2,000 years ago?
Or, the "End of the world" could easily mean "end of the world as we know it." The world is going to physically change dramatically. Life spans will increase. Wild animals will be tamed (a reference to conditions from the Garden of Eden), mountains and islands will move.
Many theorize that the earth's atmosphere was enclosed by a water or ice layer keeping out most of the sun's harmful UV rays which would also reduce interstellar radiation and cosmic rays. This layer was removed by the flood and actually helped the Flood occur. While I am not a scientist, I do see the rationale here for this layer to be restored when Christ returns.
Verse 27 totally refutes any Pre-Trib Rapture as all men are to die once. This verse is one sentence along with verse 28 which contains the Return of Christ. Therefore, even once Christ returns, men still need to die once before judgment. Therefore Christ's return does NOT mark the end of dying (Which Rev 14 agrees with).