In truth a blanket covering to the entire precepts given the Israel via Moses cannot be correct.
Jesus disagrees (Mt 22:40).
I agree that their was a change in the law concerning the temple and the Levitcal priesthood.
If one says that the entire law has been made void,
Which is precisely what the NT states:
The entire Mosaic regulations regarding defilement, purification, foods, sacrifices, priesthood, ceremonies, feasts, blessings and curses
have been
set aside (Heb 7:18) and
the old covenant made
obsolete (Heb 8:13)
because they were weak and useless (
unprofitable) to make perfect,
and a
better hope is introduced in the new covenant (Heb 7:18-19; Lk 22:20)
where the Mosaic law on which the old covenant was based
has been
replaced with the Law of Christ (Mt 22:37-40; 1Co 9:21; Gal 6:2)
which has no curse for imperfect obedience, and which
fulfills, accomplished, completes,
finishes
the law of Moses (Mt 22:40) as a means of righteousness by law keeping.
then so is the law of love,
Nope. . .not according to the Law of Christ. . .you're making it up again as you go along.
The Law of Christ is given for the new covenant (Lk 22:20) and
is the law written on our hearts (Jer 31:32) by the Holy Spirit.
unless of course we make up our own interpretation of it
The "own interpretation" taking place here is the one which denies the clear NT teaching
in Heb 7:18-19, 8:13, 1Co 9:21, Gal 6:2; Mt 22:37-40; Lk 22:20, etc.
as to what we want to believe in half truth which is no truth.
Is that why you keep altering, futzing and embellishing the NT word of God,
because you regard it as only "half truth" which you need to complete?
Yuck. . .
I do not accept that the Old Covenants contents was made void.
It is only the covenant, not what it contained.
Oh, for cryin' out loud. . .the covenant
is what it contained. . .that's all it is.
That's what the deceiver does. If the law was made void
The law g
iven to the people (Heb 7:11) at Sinai was
fulfilled by Christ (Mt 5:17)--accomplished, completed,
finished as justification,
changed with the change of the priesthood (Heb 7:11-12),
set aside as weak and useless (unprofitable) to make perfect (Heb 7:18-19),
abolished in the flesh of Christ on the cross (Eph 2:15)
as the
means of justification,
replaced with the Law of Christ (Mt 22:37-40; 1Co 9:20-21) in the new covenant (Lk 22:20).
This is the word of God spoken in the words of the Son in these last days (Heb 1:1-2)
through the NT writers.
The Holy Spirit give us to believe the NT word of God it, not to try to unseat its clear teaching.
It is not the Spirit of God who seeks to unseat the clear teaching of the word of God,
which he himself authored in Heb 7:11-12, 18-19; Eph 2:15; Mt 22:37-40; 1Co 9:20-21, etc.
then Paul would have never said faith is what establishes it. Ya cannot establish something that doesn't exist.
"Doesn't exist" is your own misrepresentation of what the NT actually states. . .
You do a lotta' that.
The law which has been set aside
as justification can be established it on its right basis. . .
subject to the law of grace,
not as a means of justification/righteousness,
only as a means of sanctification/righteousness through the obedience of faith by the Holy Spirit,
powerless to curse or to make holy, which is the work of the
Holy Spirit through obedience to God's NT
commands, instructions and exhortations.
Stop it with the pious posterings and deliberate misrepresentation of your unbelief in the NT word of God. . .