Why have the Sign Gifts Ended

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Major

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Dec 12, 2020
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Even in my church there are people losing their earthly lives. But that doesn't mean much; what really matters is the eternal life in heaven.
Isn't that then the actual difference between PHYSICAL healing and SPIRITUAL healing????

The truth of the Scriptures is that Physical healing IS NOT found in the ATONEMENT of Christ.

That is what some men have come up with in order to make money by dear brother.

"God will and must heal you" and for a LOVE offering of $100.00 sent to this ministry......................

That brother is a SCAM invented to fleece the flock and is in fact NOT Biblical.
 

Major

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Dec 12, 2020
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You mean the speaking in tongues in the Azusa St. revival? No, I believe most Christians there really spoke in tongues. My church has roots in that movement and our elders say that many people spoke previously unknown national tongues -- not gibberish.
YES. It was an emotional event rooted in what some people wanted to do so they did it rejecting what the Bible says.

Do the work brother instead of accepting what you are told.

Charles Parham was the man who came from Kansas to Azuza St. Calif. and was a free mason, a member of the Baxter Springs Masonic Lodge 12. Charles Parham was arrested for having sex with boys in 1907, six years after the revival. Charles Parham was documented to ‘mental, emotional, psychological and sociological disorders.

IS that what you want to base your theology on?????

THINK!!!!
 

Major

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Dec 12, 2020
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Oh what razor sharp wit.

I used the phrase as it should be used. I do not care how unbelievers use the term. God only reveals to the sinner his need to be saved and the Savior who can save him. The matter becomes complicated when religious folks want to discuss Spiritual matters and are unable to receive the Truth. Pretenders who are unsaved.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
Agreed.

God said in Matthew 7:21-23...........
""Not everyone who says to me, 'LORD, LORD,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22Many will say to me on that day, 'LORD, LORD, did we not prophesy in your name and in your name drive out demons and in your name perform many miracles?' 23Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'

It seems to me God agrees with you as well!
 

Artios1

Born again to serve
Dec 11, 2020
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This is nothing more than copy and pasted from the pages of the Charismatic Pentecostal handbook on how to "Fake" what you want to have.

Please answer this very simple factual question........
"IF" the gift of tongues actually exist today, then why does the Assembly of God denomination require that all their missionaries be able to speak the languages of the country they go to?????
There was no copy and paste… this is me in my own words ….trust me, I know this to be true…. because I was there when I wrote it.

If this is a way to discredit me …that’s fine, but you can’t touch the Word of God. And if I quote something or copy something I will let you know…… you won’t have to guess and be wrong.

FYI: at the bottom of this I have listed the benefits of tongues. I have posted these in different Forums between 2005-2011, shared in teachings from 1983 to date, printed and taught these for many years. If they happen to be anywhere else …I appreciate the benefit of the doubt.



YOUR QUESTION

Please answer this very simple factual question.....

"IF" the gift of tongues actually exist today, then why does the Assembly of God denomination require that all their missionaries be able to speak the languages of the country they go to?????

ANSWER: I know nothing about the Assembly of God denomination or their missionaries. But taking a stab in the dark, I would say ….so they can communicate.


You have the notion that tongues are supposed to be a language to communicate… such as what took place in Acts on the day of Pentecost. That is not the norm, and as you read through you can understand why God did that during the Feast of Weeks. But special things like that are never a guarantee…. what God states about tongues is… it’s of men or of angels. No drop down menu to select from….that’s Gods job.

I Cor. 13:1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal

The purpose of Speaking in tongues is primarily for the individual. Below is a list of the benefits of tongues.



Tongues Benefits


1. To bring a message from God {when interpreted}

I Corinthians 14:5, 27, 28;
5:except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying.

27: If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28: if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
**The person doing the speaking should also interpret


2. To magnify God

Acts10:46
For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God.



3. To give thanks well

I Corinthians 14:17
For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified


4. To speak the wonderful works of God

Acts 2:11
Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.



5. Sign to the unbelievers I Corinthians 14:22, Mark 16:17;

I Corinthians:
Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.

Mark:
And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;



6. To edify you, build you up. I Corinthians 14:4, Jude 20;

I Corinthians:
He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.

Jude:
But ye, beloved, building up yourselves on your most holy faith, praying in the Holy Ghost



7. To speak to God mysteries {divine secrets}

I Corinthians 14:2

For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.


8. Makes intercession for us

Romans 8:26&7
26: Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.



27: And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God

Ephesians 6:18

Praying always with all prayer and supplication in the Spirit, and watching thereunto with all perseverance and supplication for all saints


9. Your Proof You are born again

I Corinthians 12:3

Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
 

Artios1

Born again to serve
Dec 11, 2020
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With all due respect to you, I would suggest that YOU do your own work and not follow, copy and paste from the blogs of the Assembly of God.

To say that 1 Corinthians 13:8 is "Taken out of context" to validate the end of tongues is disingenuous and false.

From "Barnes Commenatry of the Bible"......
As for the proper CONTEXT of 1 Corinthians 13:8.....Paul here proceeds to illustrate the value of love, from its “permanency” as compared with other valued 'but temporary' endowments. It is valuable, and is to be sought because it will always abide; may be always exercised; is adapted to all circumstances, and to all worlds in which we may be placed, or in which we may dwell. The word rendered “faileth” ( ἐκπίπτει ekpiptei) denotes properly to fall out of, to fall from or off; and may be applied to the stars of heaven falling Mark 13:25, or to flowers that fall or fade James 1:11; 1 Peter 1:24, or to chains falling from the hands, etc.; Acts 12:7. Here it means to fall away, to fail; to be without effect, to cease to be in existence. "

The connection demands that the latter should be regarded as the true interpretation; see 1 Corinthians 13:13. The sense is, that while other endowments of the Holy Spirit must soon cease and he valueless, love would abide, and would always exist. The “argument” is, that we ought to seek that which is of enduring value; and that, therefore, love should be preferred to those endowments of the Spirit on which so high a value had been set by the Corinthians.

They shall fail - The gift shall cease to be exercised; shall be abolished, come to nothing. There shall be no further use for this gift in the light and glory of the world above, and it shall cease.

They shall cease - Macknight says this means that they shall cease in the church after the gospel shall have been preached to all nations.

Macknight and most others understand this of the knowledge of the mysteries of the Old Testament, or “the inspired knowledge of the ancient revelations, which should be abolished when the church should have attained its mature state;”

No disrespect taken…. Actually, I find that to be complementary since this is all my own writing and research.

I have never had any interaction with AOG blogs, sites or building. I have been teaching this for 35+ years …so if there is any plagiarizing (word for word) it came from them…..which is flattering . But if it is the same general content… maybe, it’s the truth ….since truth never changes.



I don’t think we have a problem with 1 Cor 13:8

I am certainly in lockstep with you on the exaltation of charity.

When I stated that it is taken out of context, I was referring to some who try to point out that tongues and prophesy have ceased… and that is strictly how they use the scripture.

I Cor 13:8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.

And I stated if tongues and prophecy had ceased (failed) you wouldn’t know it, because it states in the same sentence Knowledge will vanish away

Soooo, when won’t we need knowledge, tongues and prophecy? …When that which is perfect is come….(Christ Jesus)… that is when we can dump these earth suits and put on our spiritual bodies ….. And I am guessing that is probably where we differ although I am not quite sure what you adhere to when you reject the availability of the manifestations.
We both agree that love will endure and should be the foundation behind our entire walk. But I don’t quite understand why you think that the gifts Manifestations of the spirit have already ceased….

If you have posted on this previous …just give me a post number, I’ll check it out.
 

awelight

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Aug 10, 2020
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You also seem to overlook the fact that the gifts are given to members of the body of Christ for the common good according to I Corinthians 12. The only lengthy set of instructions we have for what to do in scripture (aside from a set of instructions on how not to have communion) assumes the operation of the gifts of prophecy, tongues, and interpretation and commands the church to allow prophesying.

I am familiar with the 'have already been bound in heaven' concept, and I would agree that some of the 'binding Satan' interpretations seem to veer from what some of these passages are saying. But binding and losing is mentioned in Matthew 18 there where the instructions are given for an individual is brought before an assembly after not repenting of his sin. How could this not be an actual local assembly? Paul wanted the fornicator in I Corinthians 5 to be dealt with in a local assembly, not just before the church universal in an esoteric manner.[/QUOTE]

How does Eph. 2:10 and 3:10 have anything at all to do with the subject of Extraordinary gifts? The context here is God's work in the Salvation of the Elect. Like in so many other places in the Bible, Paul is again putting forth that Salvation is all of God. Upon this Salvation, the believer is to walk and do those things prepared by God. Each one of us has a particular service to perform.

Eph. 2:8-10 for by grace have ye been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not of works, that no man should glory. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God afore prepared that we should walk in them.

Eph. 3:10, is referring to the intent of Paul's ministry and the mystery of the Gentiles. Paul constituted himself as "...less than the least of all saints..." (v.8a), but "...was given this grace, to preach unto the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ;" (v.8b). The gracious gift herein mentioned, is the ability to preach. No extraordinary gifts are in view here. This mystery is mentioned in verses 5 & 6: which in other generations was not made known unto the sons of men, as it hath now been revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets in the Spirit; to wit, that the Gentiles are fellow-heirs, and fellow-members of the body, and fellow-partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel, This is ordinary revelation through the Gospel in the sphere of the Spirit. The same way true believers learn today. Paul revealed in his preaching: "...the dispensation of the mystery which for ages hath been hid in God who created all things;" (v.9b) This mystery was made up of three parts: 1) The Gentiles, 2) Jesus Christ and 3) The church. Within the Old Testament Scriptures - there was no mention of the Gentiles being partakers of the Israelite Covenant. Additionally, there was no mention of Christ building a church, (His Bride).

I Cor. 12:4-11, defines many of the gifts of the Spirit. Paul list three categories of the gifts: 1) Diverse gifts or abilities, 2) Diverse administrations, 3) Diverse services, (v. 4-6). Most of these gifts would be considered "ordinary" as touching our discussion. Only a few are "extraordinary". The "ordinary" gifts of the Spirit are: 1) A word of wisdom, 2) A word of knowledge, 3) A greater faith, 4) The discerning of spirits. The "extraordinary" gifts of the Spirit are: 1) Speaking a foreign language, 2) The ability to interpret the language.

Three of the gifts are controversial as to their meaning: 1) Healing, 2) Prophesying, 3) Miracles. Since in the immediate context, it is not possible to determine if "healing" is to be understood in the "extraordinary" sense or in the "ordinary".

Healing - may mean as to one who has been given knowledge of cures (Pharmaceutical) and/or in the knowledge of a doctor. This Greek word ἰαμάτων, is only found here and in two other verses, both in 1 Corinthians. (vs. 28 and 30). The primary understanding of this word is "to cure". Whether by knowledge or supernatural means cannot be known for sure in this context nor in the other two verses.

Prophesying - The primary meaning of the Greek word to prophesy, means "to speak forth"; in the use of Scripture, to speak forth the word of God. If the context demands it, then it can mean in a predictive manner. However, in verse 10, no true meaning of this words use can be ascertained. It could be understood to mean any one of these or none of these. Some believe the Greek word can also mean to speak forth in song. Even great commentary writers like John Gill would not commit himself - "To another prophecy: either foretelling of future events, as was given to Agabus, and the four daughters of Philip, and others, Act_11:27 or a gift of understanding the prophecies of the Old Testament, and of preaching the Gospel, which is in this epistle frequently called "prophesying", particularly in the two following chapters; and those endowed with it are called prophets, Act_13:1." (John Gill).

Miracles - The greek word δυναμεων, is used some 120 times in the New Testament. In English it carries the meaning of: "power, strength or authority." Let's look at how it is used in other verses of Scripture, highlighted in red.

Mat 24:30 and then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Mar 14:62 And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.
1Co 2:4 And my speech and my preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power:
2Co 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the exceeding greatness of the power may be of God, and not from ourselves;
2Pe 1:3 seeing that his divine power hath granted unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that called us by his own glory and virtue;

These are just a few but they are all like these examples. The real question is - Why did the translators decide here in 1 Cor. 12:10, to all of a sudden use the word "miracle" when they had been consistently using the word "power"? Here is a very interesting verse on this discussion:

Act 6:8 And Stephen, full of grace and power, wrought great wonders and miracles among the people. Again, our Greek word from 12:10, is translated here "power". The words "wonders" and "miracles" are two completely different Greek words. They are τερατα (wonders) and σημεια (miracles).

So as you can see - extraordinary gifts may not be mentioned where you think they are. It takes time and a true desire to know what God has said to come to these conclusions. It has taken me three enjoyable hours to research this response. But we all have a duty to come as close to the truth as we can. So much more proof could be given but this is enough to place any ones mind, who is really seeking the Truth, into a questionable gear. Let that person now search the Scriptures to see if they have the truth on extraordinary gifts. Yes, you might need to do a thorough word study of each verse, where a word is used, to determine it's true meaning. This can only be done in the Koine Greek language. For as you see in these examples, the same English word, may not have the same Greek word for it's root.

Just trying to be helpful.
 

awelight

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Aug 10, 2020
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Agreed.

God said in Matthew 7:21-23...........
""Not everyone who says to me, 'LORD, LORD,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22Many will say to me on that day, 'LORD, LORD, did we not prophesy in your name and in your name drive out demons and in your name perform many miracles?' 23Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'

It seems to me God agrees with you as well!
What a wonderful study there is in the last portion of that verse... "I never knew you..." The Greek word translated into English as "knew" is a Perfect Active Participle. Therefore, the best translation would be "... I have never known you..." This reaches all the way back to Eternity past, before anything are anyone was ever created. Christ does not have any relationship with those that are not His Sheep. He knows about the evil doers and their goings on but He does not know them intimately. That relationship is reserved for God's elect.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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I Cor. 12:4-11, defines many of the gifts of the Spirit. Paul list three categories of the gifts: 1) Diverse gifts or abilities, 2) Diverse administrations, 3) Diverse services, (v. 4-6). Most of these gifts would be considered "ordinary" as touching our discussion. Only a few are "extraordinary". The "ordinary" gifts of the Spirit are: 1) A word of wisdom, 2) A word of knowledge, 3) A greater faith, 4) The discerning of spirits. The "extraordinary" gifts of the Spirit are: 1) Speaking a foreign language, 2) The ability to interpret the language.

Three of the gifts are controversial as to their meaning: 1) Healing, 2) Prophesying, 3) Miracles. Since in the immediate context, it is not possible to determine if "healing" is to be understood in the "extraordinary" sense or in the "ordinary".

Healing - may mean as to one who has been given knowledge of cures (Pharmaceutical) and/or in the knowledge of a doctor. This Greek word ἰαμάτων, is only found here and in two other verses, both in 1 Corinthians. (vs. 28 and 30). The primary understanding of this word is "to cure". Whether by knowledge or supernatural means cannot be known for sure in this context nor in the other two verses.

Prophesying - The primary meaning of the Greek word to prophesy, means "to speak forth"; in the use of Scripture, to speak forth the word of God. If the context demands it, then it can mean in a predictive manner. However, in verse 10, no true meaning of this words use can be ascertained. It could be understood to mean any one of these or none of these. Some believe the Greek word can also mean to speak forth in song. Even great commentary writers like John Gill would not commit himself - "To another prophecy: either foretelling of future events, as was given to Agabus, and the four daughters of Philip, and others, Act_11:27 or a gift of understanding the prophecies of the Old Testament, and of preaching the Gospel, which is in this epistle frequently called "prophesying", particularly in the two following chapters; and those endowed with it are called prophets, Act_13:1." (John Gill).

Miracles - The greek word δυναμεων, is used some 120 times in the New Testament. In English it carries the meaning of: "power, strength or authority." Let's look at how it is used in other verses of Scripture, highlighted in red.

Mat 24:30 and then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Mar 14:62 And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.
1Co 2:4 And my speech and my preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power:
2Co 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the exceeding greatness of the power may be of God, and not from ourselves;
2Pe 1:3 seeing that his divine power hath granted unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of him that called us by his own glory and virtue;

These are just a few but they are all like these examples. The real question is - Why did the translators decide here in 1 Cor. 12:10, to all of a sudden use the word "miracle" when they had been consistently using the word "power"? Here is a very interesting verse on this discussion:

Act 6:8 And Stephen, full of grace and power, wrought great wonders and miracles among the people. Again, our Greek word from 12:10, is translated here "power". The words "wonders" and "miracles" are two completely different Greek words. They are τερατα (wonders) and σημεια (miracles).

So as you can see - extraordinary gifts may not be mentioned where you think they are. It takes time and a true desire to know what God has said to come to these conclusions. It has taken me three enjoyable hours to research this response. But we all have a duty to come as close to the truth as we can. So much more proof could be given but this is enough to place any ones mind, who is really seeking the Truth, into a questionable gear. Let that person now search the Scriptures to see if they have the truth on extraordinary gifts. Yes, you might need to do a thorough word study of each verse, where a word is used, to determine it's true meaning. This can only be done in the Koine Greek language. For as you see in these examples, the same English word, may not have the same Greek word for it's root.

Just trying to be helpful.
Your classification of gifts into categories caught my attention. I would offer this: if the "miraculous" ability can be learned through diligent study by a non-Christian, then it is likely not a "manifestation of the Spirit" to which Paul refers in 1 Corinthians 12. To wit, the ability to speak or understand many languages, and the ability to apply medical knowledge and techniques to persons in need of healing, can both be learned by non-Christians. Given that, the "gifts" are likely abilities that cannot be learned, and that they are actually restricted to persons so empowered by the Holy Spirit.
 

Marcelo

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Feb 4, 2016
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AGreed.
But if you don’t have enough faith to be healed, how do you know you have enough faith to be saved?

The bottom line is that the Atonement is not about being physical healed.
As think that if we believe in Jesus, don't commit fornication or adultery, don't steal, don't lie, etc ..., we will be saved even if our faith is not strong enough to be healed.
 

awelight

Well-known member
Aug 10, 2020
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Your classification of gifts into categories caught my attention. I would offer this: if the "miraculous" ability can be learned through diligent study by a non-Christian, then it is likely not a "manifestation of the Spirit" to which Paul refers in 1 Corinthians 12. To wit, the ability to speak or understand many languages, and the ability to apply medical knowledge and techniques to persons in need of healing, can both be learned by non-Christians. Given that, the "gifts" are likely abilities that cannot be learned, and that they are actually restricted to persons so empowered by the Holy Spirit.
An interesting thought.

However there is sense in which all knowledge comes from God. Such as we find here:

Exo 31:3-7 And I have filled him with the spirit of God, in wisdom, and in understanding, and in knowledge, and in all manner of workmanship, To devise cunning works, to work in gold, and in silver, and in brass, And in cutting of stones, to set them, and in carving of timber, to work in all manner of workmanship. And I, behold, I have given with him Aholiab, the son of Ahisamach, of the tribe of Dan: and in the hearts of all that are wise hearted I have put wisdom, that they may make all that I have commanded thee; The tabernacle of the congregation, and the ark of the testimony, and the mercy seat that is thereupon, and all the furniture of the tabernacle,

This was one of many occasions where God, through the Spirit, gave men the knowledge to carry out His commandments. God leaves nothing to chance. The knowledge in 1 Cor. 12 was in this same vein. The ability to understand the use of herbs and other forms of cures, as well as, to fulfill the role of a medical doctor, would have been knowledge given to one who heretofore had not this knowledge. This in itself is supernatural in it's origin but would not be the way one would learn medicine today. In this same way, people would not be given the complete education of a stone mason or furniture craftsman, as it was given in Exodos 31.

In each case, God had a specific reason for this information being passed on to particular people. Not all of the Israelites were given such knowledge. Only the ones chosen to build the Tabernacle and it's furnishings. In the early church, members of an assembly would be given various gifts to accomplish God's plan. This included some of the extraordinary gifts given to some for a particular purpose. The need for them has passed away but the ordinary gifts are still done today, as they will be needed until the church is taken out of the way.

If one is being honest with themselves and the Scriptures, one must ask: To what purpose would these extraordinary gifts have in the local assembly today? We don't need the ability to speak a foreign tongue today and can learn to do that through conventional means. The assembly certainly does not need the ability to speak an angelic language, if it were possible to do so. None of these abilities would edify the assembly. The edification of the Saints is the first and foremost priority. This is done through the preaching/teaching of the elder or elders. The Saints follow along with the aid of the indwelling Holy Spirit. All true born again believers, need no gimmicks or special revelation to further their knowledge. What God has revealed in His Holy Word is sufficient.

The situation in Corinth, in those early days was quite different. Corinth was a port city and was visited daily by many ships coming from various countries. The ability to speak in another's language would have come in quite handy, as the Corinthian church could have been visited by many different language speakers. So God granting this gift makes perfect sense but how does that apply to the modern day assembly and her needs? It does not.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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An interesting thought.

However there is sense in which all knowledge comes from God. Such as we find here:

Exo 31:3-7 And I have filled him with the spirit of God, in wisdom, and in understanding, and in knowledge, and in all manner of workmanship, To devise cunning works, to work in gold, and in silver, and in brass, And in cutting of stones, to set them, and in carving of timber, to work in all manner of workmanship. And I, behold, I have given with him Aholiab, the son of Ahisamach, of the tribe of Dan: and in the hearts of all that are wise hearted I have put wisdom, that they may make all that I have commanded thee; The tabernacle of the congregation, and the ark of the testimony, and the mercy seat that is thereupon, and all the furniture of the tabernacle,

This was one of many occasions where God, through the Spirit, gave men the knowledge to carry out His commandments. God leaves nothing to chance. The knowledge in 1 Cor. 12 was in this same vein. The ability to understand the use of herbs and other forms of cures, as well as, to fulfill the role of a medical doctor, would have been knowledge given to one who heretofore had not this knowledge. This in itself is supernatural in it's origin but would not be the way one would learn medicine today. In this same way, people would not be given the complete education of a stone mason or furniture craftsman, as it was given in Exodos 31.

In each case, God had a specific reason for this information being passed on to particular people. Not all of the Israelites were given such knowledge. Only the ones chosen to build the Tabernacle and it's furnishings. In the early church, members of an assembly would be given various gifts to accomplish God's plan. This included some of the extraordinary gifts given to some for a particular purpose. The need for them has passed away but the ordinary gifts are still done today, as they will be needed until the church is taken out of the way.

If one is being honest with themselves and the Scriptures, one must ask: To what purpose would these extraordinary gifts have in the local assembly today? We don't need the ability to speak a foreign tongue today and can learn to do that through conventional means. The assembly certainly does not need the ability to speak an angelic language, if it were possible to do so. None of these abilities would edify the assembly. The edification of the Saints is the first and foremost priority. This is done through the preaching/teaching of the elder or elders. The Saints follow along with the aid of the indwelling Holy Spirit. All true born again believers, need no gimmicks or special revelation to further their knowledge. What God has revealed in His Holy Word is sufficient.

The situation in Corinth, in those early days was quite different. Corinth was a port city and was visited daily by many ships coming from various countries. The ability to speak in another's language would have come in quite handy, as the Corinthian church could have been visited by many different language speakers. So God granting this gift makes perfect sense but how does that apply to the modern day assembly and her needs? It does not.
I agree; God did occasionally impart knowledge and understanding. However, your claim that the "need" for what you classify as extraordinary gifts no longer exists is debatable.

Also, I agree that in terms of general knowledge (that intended for every believer), revelation is complete. However, I would argue that revelation specific to individuals (or limited groups) continues unabated. The sharing of knowledge simply demonstrates that one has learned, while the sharing of a word of knowledge demonstrates that God is at work. The genuine gifts of the Holy Spirit were never "gimmicks".

Corinth was no more cosmopolitan than any major city today. I think of Vancouver, which has significant sub-cultures of Chinese, Korean, Vietnamese, Filipino, Arabic, Hindi, Punjabi, and several North American First Nations, among others. Would not the gift of speaking in tongues find appropriate need there? Further, I don't believe that gift was given for general evangelism, but specifically for edification as the text states. There is certainly no less need for that today. :)
 

awelight

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As think that if we believe in Jesus, don't commit fornication or adultery, don't steal, don't lie, etc ..., we will be saved even if our faith is not strong enough to be healed.
You do realize that this would make Salvation of works and not grace. If one does not have the judicial work that Christ provided imputed to their account, then that one is lost. His/her human faith will not save him/her. Keeping the commandments is a proper way for the believer to lead his/her practical life but these same commandments brought death onto all men and cannot be kept in both thought and deed.

As far as our faith being strong enough or not, to be healed - we must always remember that God is the one in control. One could have strong faith and pray till they were blue in the face but if it is not in God's will, it is not going to happen. Christ has the keys to Hades and Death.... not us. (Rev. 1:18) As such He is the one who brings about healing and death. The modern day teaching, by most Charismatics, is nothing short of heresy. They would have one believe: If you pray and remain faithful but are not healed, then you must be at fault. What a load of cow dung! God has a purpose in our infirmities and may not answer our request for healing. The Apostle Paul had a "thorn" which he entreated the Lord three times over but it was not removed. Do you think Job could have saved his family from dying through his faith? They were given over to Satan by God to be killed. Job lost everything and God permitted it. Later Job got things back 10 fold.

God's purpose will be done in all of our lives, whether a believer or a nonbeliever.
 

awelight

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I agree; God did occasionally impart knowledge and understanding. However, your claim that the "need" for what you classify as extraordinary gifts no longer exists is debatable.

Also, I agree that in terms of general knowledge (that intended for every believer), revelation is complete. However, I would argue that revelation specific to individuals (or limited groups) continues unabated. The sharing of knowledge simply demonstrates that one has learned, while the sharing of a word of knowledge demonstrates that God is at work. The genuine gifts of the Holy Spirit were never "gimmicks".

Corinth was no more cosmopolitan than any major city today. I think of Vancouver, which has significant sub-cultures of Chinese, Korean, Vietnamese, Filipino, Arabic, Hindi, Punjabi, and several North American First Nations, among others. Would not the gift of speaking in tongues find appropriate need there? Further, I don't believe that gift was given for general evangelism, but specifically for edification as the text states. There is certainly no less need for that today. :)
As to those who are in your Vancouver example, I would argue that they have their own churches they can go to and hear the Word in their native language. Why would someone who can't understand English come to an English speaking church today? In the days of the Corinthian church, you didn't have a lot of choices. To my knowledge, at the time of Paul's writing, it was the only one. Corinth also did not possess printed Scripture yet, let alone in different languages.

As to the text... Paul never said that the ability to speak in an unknown tongue was for the edification of the assembly. On the contrary, he said just the opposite. 1Cor 14:23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad? Paul taught that speaking in tongues was for self edification: 1Cor 14:4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church. Thus, Paul always magnified the preaching/teaching as the way to edify the assembly:

1Co 14:5-6 Now I would have you all speak with tongues, but rather that ye should prophesy: and greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying. But now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, unless I speak to you either by way of revelation, or of knowledge, or of prophesying, or of teaching?

The four preferred methods of edification: Sharing a new found revelation with others. Sharing your acquired knowledge with others. Preaching the Word to others and Teaching.

Paul never placed speaking with tongues high on the priority list of important gifts: 1Co 14:18-19 I thank God, I speak with tongues more than you all: howbeit in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that I might instruct others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue.

Finally, we know that the Corinthians were being childish over these gifts, with much envy and strife. Paul gave this warning to them to grow up: 1Co 14:20 Brethren, be not children in mind: yet in malice be ye babes, but in mind be men. He then specified the purpose of the gift of languages. First they were to fulfill prophecy of the OT: 1Co 14:21 In the law it is written, By men of strange tongues and by the lips of strangers will I speak unto this people; and not even thus will they hear me, saith the Lord. Secondly, they were for a sign to the Jews and unbelievers: 1Co 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to the unbelieving: but prophesying is for a sign, not to the unbelieving, but to them that believe. Believers have no use for this sign but don't many charismatic churches today quietly criticize those who cannot speak a tongue? Are they, like in the Corinthian church, seen as inferior? This has been my experience with the Charismatic movement.
 

Dino246

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He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church. Thus, Paul always magnified the preaching/teaching as the way to edify the assembly:
I understand that some people believe "prophesying" to mean "preaching" but I don't accept that explanation. It simply doesn't jibe with the use of the terms throughout the New Testament. Also, it is normally held by cessationists, who claim that the gift of prophesying ceased. You (general) can't have it both ways.

Paul never placed speaking with tongues high on the priority list of important gifts: 1Co 14:18-19 I thank God, I speak with tongues more than you all: howbeit in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that I might instruct others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue.
True, but he also gave clear instructions for the use of the gift in v. 27-28, and stated, "Do not forbid speaking in tongues" (v. 39), which is exactly what many cessationists do today.

Believers have no use for this sign
I disagree; Paul stated clearly that he who speaks in a tongue edifies (builds up) himself. Jude speaks of, "Building yourselves up in the most holy faith, praying in the Holy Spirit" (v. 20).

but don't many charismatic churches today quietly criticize those who cannot speak a tongue?
I don't hold to that idea at all; it's a violation of 1 Corinthians 12:30.
 

presidente

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Charles Parham was the man who came from Kansas to Azuza St. Calif. and was a free mason, a member of the Baxter Springs Masonic Lodge 12. Charles Parham was arrested for having sex with boys in 1907, six years after the revival.
The Bible says 'Thou shalt not bear false witness against thy neighbor.' Why would those who are sleep/deceased be an exception? We should still speak truth to our neighbor. Christians should be careful not to repeat as fact rumors and news reports.

It is very obvious these days that news is not reliable. That may have been even more the case in the early 1900s. This was right after the Spanish American War which many historians consider to have been caused by yellow journalism.

From what I have read, the records show that a J. Jourdan who had been charged theft of money from a hotel, accused Parham of unnatural acts. A number of rumors were circulated by those who did not like Holiness ministers back then and by a man who considered Parham to be a mayor opponent of his religious political control. According to Parham's wife, the city prosecutor said of the charges, “it was all spite work.” and that there was “no evidence that merited any legal recognition.” The case was dismissed and he was apparently not convicted and the statements were not taken to a grand jury.

As for the masons, according to his wife, he left the freemasons. Do you think someone who had been into freemasonry at some point in their past could not be saved?

Charles Parham was documented to ‘mental, emotional, psychological and sociological disorders.
What is your source for this statement? I suspect some posters on these forums, at least one on the cessationist side also, have displayed some of these problems. (I am not using this as an attack against you personally, btw, just thinking of past conversations.)
 

presidente

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As to the text... Paul never said that the ability to speak in an unknown tongue was for the edification of the assembly. On the contrary, he said just the opposite.
The interpretation of tongues is for the edification of the assembly. But you can't have the interpretation of tongues without the words spoken in tongues. 'Divers tongues' is listed with interpretation of tongues among the gifts given to members of the body of Christ 'to profit withal' or... 'for the common good' in another translation.

Btw, the verse that follows is not 'just the opposite' of edifying the assembly. Tongues has multiple functions. Serving as a sign to unbelievers is only one of them.

1Cor 14:23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad? Paul taught that speaking in tongues was for self edification: 1Cor 14:4 He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church. Thus, Paul always magnified the preaching/teaching as the way to edify the assembly:
Look at this in the broader context. Paul is explaining how tongues functions as a sign, fulfilling 'With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.' When unbelievers hear all speak in tongues their reaction, in Paul's example, is to say 'ye are mad.' Compare with the accusation of drunkenness in Acts 2.

Also, look at Paul's conclusion about what to do in church, nay, commandments of the Lord. He says when ye come together, every one of you hath a psalm, hath a doctrine, hath a tongue, hath a revelation, hath an interpretation. Look at verse 26. Verse 27 and 28 specifically allow speaking in tongues and interpretation in church. Speaking in tongues combined with interpretation edifies the church and the Lord specifically allows it in church if done in an orderly manner in this passage.

I do wonder about your assertions. Have you bothered to sit down and read the passage carefully?

1Co 14:5-6 Now I would have you all speak with tongues, but rather that ye should prophesy: and greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying. But now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, unless I speak to you either by way of revelation, or of knowledge, or of prophesying, or of teaching?
Notice 'except he interpret'. The passage encourages interpreting speaking in tongues, prophesying, or saying other edifying words to the congregation. (Also, notice the underlying assumption is NOT a church meeting where one pastor does all the speaking or even a group of elders does so, but members of the body of Christ do such things as prophesy and speak in tongues and interpret in church.)

The four preferred methods of edification: Sharing a new found revelation with others. Sharing your acquired knowledge with others. Preaching the Word to others and Teaching.
It is conceivable that Paul was describing the types of things that could be said in an interpretation of tongues. Look at the context.

Paul never placed speaking with tongues high on the priority list of important gifts: 1Co 14:18-19 I thank God, I speak with tongues more than you all: howbeit in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that I might instruct others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue.
He does not say where tongues ranks when compared with leadership or service or other gifts. He spends part of chapter 12 instructing his readers not to despise other members of the body, which have certain gifts. So we should not do so with speaking in tongues or interpretation.

Also notice that Paul spoke in tongues more than all of his readers, so his attitude toward it is not negative. A theme that runs throughout the chapter is that speaking in tongues without interpretation does not edify the assembly, and the rules set down for it are for the context of the assembly.

Finally, we know that the Corinthians were being childish over these gifts, with much envy and strife. Paul gave this warning to them to grow up: 1Co 14:20 Brethren, be not children in mind: yet in malice be ye babes, but in mind be men.


Can you show me one verse in I Corinthians that indicates that there was either envy or strife about the gifts? Paul's correction here is related to their childish understanding. He apparently considered it childish for them not to realize that listeners had to understand what the message in tongues said by means of interpretation in order for it to be edifying to them.

He then specified the purpose of the gift of languages.
This is very limited thinking, and not in line with scripture, that tongues as a sign is THE purpose of tongues. What do we do with the rest of what the book has to say about the topic? In chapter 12, tongues and interpretation are among the manifestations of the Spirit given 'to profit withal.' In Chapter 14, tongues edifies the speaker, and if it is interpreted, it edifies the congregation. In verse 26, tongues is allowed as a type of utterance that may be spoken 'unto edifying'. Verses 27 and 28 give instructions allowing interpretation of tongues in church. So why would only one part of the passage be THE purpose for tongues and not the others?

First they were to fulfill prophecy of the OT: 1Co 14:21 In the law it is written, By men of strange tongues and by the lips of strangers will I speak unto this people; and not even thus will they hear me, saith the Lord. Secondly, they were for a sign to the Jews and unbelievers: 1Co 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to the unbelieving: but prophesying is for a sign, not to the unbelieving, but to them that believe. Believers have no use for this sign but don't many charismatic churches today quietly criticize those who cannot speak a tongue?
Tongues are a sign for unbelievers. For believers, tongues is one of the gifts of the Spirit. Tongues edify the speaker. One who gives thanks in the spirit, speaking in tongues, gives thanks well. Combined with interpretation, speaking in tongues edifies the assembly. I Corinthians 14 specifically allows it in church and commands 'Forbid not to speak with tongues.' So the church does have a use for speaking in tongues besides it being a sign to unbelievers.

Are they, like in the Corinthian church, seen as inferior? This has been my experience with the Charismatic movement.
Paul does not say that Corinthians who spoke in tongues considered themselves inferior to those who did not. Some Charismatics do believe in the 'initial evidence doctrine'-- that tongues necessarily accompany baptism with the Holy Spirit (seen as empowerment subsequent to salvation.) I do not agree with that, but I cannot say I have heard Charismatics criticize someone for speaking in tongues.
 

presidente

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Churches that believe preaching is prophesying and preachers are prophets, should have two or three preachers...or sermons... in a meeting, and they should allow someone sitting by to speak if that person gets a revelation....oops, that part doesn't fit with that understanding of what 'prophesy' means.
 

mustaphadrink

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The argument that it has ceased is straightforward, with the necessary scripture:
  1. Signs are for the nation Israel. (Exodus 4, Psalms 74:9, Judges 6:13)
  2. The Messiah was promised to Israel and prophecy stated that he will perform many signs and wonders to prove his identity (Luke 7:20-23)
  3. When Jesus appeared, he performed all the necessary signs to testify to the nation Israel (John 20:30-21, Acts 2:22, Hebrews 2:4)
  4. Despite the numerous signs, Israel rejected him by putting him on the cross. (Luke 20:14, Acts 2:36)
  5. God gave Israel a one year extension as God's favored nation (Luke 13:8-9, Acts 3:26), by sending the Holy Spirit at Pentecost, who performed numerous signs and wonders again in Acts 2-7, in a final attempt to convince Israel to repent of murdering the Messiah and be converted (Acts 3:19-21).
  6. Israel rejected the Holy Spirit by their leaders stoning Stephen (Acts 7)
  7. Israel the nation fell and now salvation has been released to the gentiles thru their fall, as God has planned since the foundation of the world (Romans 11:11)
  8. Paul was given signs and wonders temporary to alert Israel of the change in dispensation (Acts 15:12)
  9. By the time Acts 28 arrived, even the diaspora of Israel has rejected Jesus (Acts 28:28).
  10. Signs and wonders have completely ceased at Acts 28.
Any comments and different perspectives?
Why have the sign giftsd ended? Simple. They haven't.