”...over the man....”
Could this be ”...to a man...”
I mean: ”I suffer not a woman to teach or have authority TO A MAN...” Nope, that ain't what Scripture says, is it?
What does this mean then? Hmmmm..... Who is ”...the man...” is my question to you, jinX ?
Could 1 Timothy 2:11-12 refer to ”The man” = husband ? I mean, verse 13 certainly refers to 11-12 context, and, who is mentioned, Adam, The husband, then, Eve, The wife. Then, The garden of Eden transgression by Eve, her being deceived is mentioned, for why The HUSBAND is in control.of his wife . She is who is to be silent to HER HUSBAND , not just any man, but ”The man.”