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Which Bible translation do you use as your main translation?

  • NIV

    Votes: 5 9.4%
  • NLT

    Votes: 2 3.8%
  • ESV

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  • CSB

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • KJV

    Votes: 25 47.2%
  • NKJV

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  • NASB

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  • Other (please comment)

    Votes: 4 7.5%

  • Total voters
    53

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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^^

I think this is important to know as background in order to really know the truth about why kjv says easter in Acts 12
Here is the background to consider:

Exodus 12:13-18
Deuteronomy 16:1-8
II Chronicles 8:13
II Chronicles 30:l5,21
Ezra 6:19,22

Thanks
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
11,044
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Here is the background to consider:

Exodus 12:13-18
Deuteronomy 16:1-8
II Chronicles 8:13
II Chronicles 30:l5,21
Ezra 6:19,22

Thanks
All of which support the term, "Passover" rather than "Easter".
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
24,708
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Umm. If you really wanted to trace back the word Easter then you have to look on the Bible as the Final Authority. Easter in reference to East which we are pre-conditioned that the sun rises at the east. Christ, the Sun of righteousness will arise with healing in his wings and the day dawn will shine, soon will arise in your hearts. Actually, we have also a more sure word of prophecy which will bring to light about the subject.

Mal_4:2 But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings; and ye shall go forth, and grow up as calves of the stall.
2Pe_1:19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:

Consider if there is a true gospel, there is a false gospel, if there are true apostles of Christ, there are also false apostles etc. so that if Christ is the “day-star” then enter Astoreth/Astaroth the impersonator, The false, the fake one. Indeed the Bible has the answer.
Deu_1:4 After he had slain Sihon the king of the Amorites, which dwelt in Heshbon, and Og the king of Bashan, which dwelt at Astaroth in Edrei:

Easton's Bible Dictionary
Ashtoreth
The moon goddess of the Phoenicians, representing the passive principle in nature, their principal female deity; frequently associated with the name of Baal, the sun-god, their chief male deity (Judges 10:6; 1 Samuel 7:4; 12:10). These names often occur in the plural (Ashtaroth, Baalim), probably as indicating either different statues or different modifications of the deities. This deity is spoken of as Ashtoreth of the Zidonians. She was the Ishtar of the Accadians and the Astarte of the Greeks (Jeremiah 44:17; 1 Kings 11:5, 33; 2 Kings 23:13). There was a temple of this goddess among the Philistines in the time of Saul (1 Samuel 31:10). Under the name of Ishtar, she was one of the great deities of the Assyrians. The Phoenicians called her Astarte. Solomon introduced the worship of this idol (1 Kings 11:33). Jezebel's 400 priests were probably employed in its service (1 Kings 18:19). It was called the "queen of heaven" (Jeremiah 44:25).
Herewith is a link who is Astarte/Astaroth etc. as an outside reference and hope this will settle Ostern, Easter Ishtar, Astarte, EAST Star etc. that there is really indeed genuine and a fake one.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Astarte

Consider also this:
In Tagalog, pasha, paska, pascha paques, passoever, easter etc. is equivalent to “pasko” and “pasko” can be used either “pasko ng kapanangakan” usually in reference to the birth of our Lord Jesus Christ hence, the tagalog word “kapanangkan” in English is “birth” or “pasko ng pagkabuhay” which literally means the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ. So it is fair to say that the translation must consider the context and which do not contradict itself.
Seems to me you are saying that 'easter' is an imposter taking the place of passover.

I think history bears that out, and I agree. :)

I dont think that Herod was waiting for an imposter holiday that ((an overwhelming majority ethnic Hebrew)) 1st century Christians may have been coming to Jerusalem to observe. I think anyone coming to Jerusalem at that time was there for Pascha, whether they understood Christ to be the Lamb of God or not.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
24,708
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Here's something interesting i heard a preacher point out yesterday:
Christ didn't rise on Passover. He offered Himself on Passover and rose on Firstfruits. So 'Easter' isn't a substitution for Passover at all but for Firstfruits.

Leviticus 23:9-14
And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, When ye be come into the land which I give unto you, and shall reap the harvest thereof, then ye shall bring a sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest unto the priest: And he shall wave the sheaf before the LORD, to be accepted for you: on the morrow after the sabbath the priest shall wave it. And ye shall offer that day when ye wave the sheaf an he lamb without blemish of the first year for a burnt offering unto the LORD. And the meat offering thereof [shall be] two tenth deals of fine flour mingled with oil, an offering made by fire unto the LORD [for] a sweet savour: and the drink offering thereof [shall be] of wine, the fourth [part] of an hin. And ye shall eat neither bread, nor parched corn, nor green ears, until the selfsame day that ye have brought an offering unto your God: [it shall be] a statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.

This takes place on an 8th day, and is the day that Pentecost is counted from ((50 days from this offering - also an 8th day))
 
Umm. If you really wanted to trace back the word Easter then you have to look on the Bible as the Final Authority. Easter in reference to East which we are pre-conditioned that the sun rises at the east. Christ, the Sun of righteousness will arise with healing in his wings and the day dawn will shine, soon will arise in your hearts. Actually, we have also a more sure word of prophecy which will bring to light about the subject.

Mal_4:2 But unto you that fear my name shall the Sun of righteousness arise with healing in his wings; and ye shall go forth, and grow up as calves of the stall.
2Pe_1:19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:

Consider if there is a true gospel, there is a false gospel, if there are true apostles of Christ, there are also false apostles etc. so that if Christ is the “day-star” then enter Astoreth/Astaroth the impersonator, The false, the fake one. Indeed the Bible has the answer.
Deu_1:4 After he had slain Sihon the king of the Amorites, which dwelt in Heshbon, and Og the king of Bashan, which dwelt at Astaroth in Edrei:

Easton's Bible Dictionary
Ashtoreth
The moon goddess of the Phoenicians, representing the passive principle in nature, their principal female deity; frequently associated with the name of Baal, the sun-god, their chief male deity (Judges 10:6; 1 Samuel 7:4; 12:10). These names often occur in the plural (Ashtaroth, Baalim), probably as indicating either different statues or different modifications of the deities. This deity is spoken of as Ashtoreth of the Zidonians. She was the Ishtar of the Accadians and the Astarte of the Greeks (Jeremiah 44:17; 1 Kings 11:5, 33; 2 Kings 23:13). There was a temple of this goddess among the Philistines in the time of Saul (1 Samuel 31:10). Under the name of Ishtar, she was one of the great deities of the Assyrians. The Phoenicians called her Astarte. Solomon introduced the worship of this idol (1 Kings 11:33). Jezebel's 400 priests were probably employed in its service (1 Kings 18:19). It was called the "queen of heaven" (Jeremiah 44:25).
Herewith is a link who is Astarte/Astaroth etc. as an outside reference and hope this will settle Ostern, Easter Ishtar, Astarte, EAST Star etc. that there is really indeed genuine and a fake one.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Astarte

Consider also this:
In Tagalog, pasha, paska, pascha paques, passoever, easter etc. is equivalent to “pasko” and “pasko” can be used either “pasko ng kapanangakan” usually in reference to the birth of our Lord Jesus Christ hence, the tagalog word “kapanangkan” in English is “birth” or “pasko ng pagkabuhay” which literally means the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ. So it is fair to say that the translation must consider the context and which do not contradict itself.
I'll agree with ya there is indeed a "true" gospel, as well as a "false" gospel. That there be the true Christ, as well as the false Christ.
What throws many believers, is how the word "ANTI", was used and defined then, as well, as how it is used and defined in these last days.

The word "anti", these days? Is defined as AGAINST! And, albeit true, concerning the "spirit of anti-christ?"
The "truer" and more "deceptive" usage and definition of the word "anti", back then, and the way it was used in "describing" the spirit of anti-christ: Is "INSTEAD of Christ!"

Such like instead of Passover, and the Risen Savior?
Celebrate the Ressurection with spring, new life, fertility, with grassy baskets, filled with colored eggs, and chocolate bunnies, COMBINED, or likening it "TO" the Risen Lord! Or, as in many many cases? "INSTEAD OF", the Risen Lord!

Mark 4
19 And the cares of this world, and the deceitfulness of riches, and the lusts of other things entering in(colored eggs, chocolate bunnies, baskets filled with grass), CHOKE the word, and it becometh unfruitful.

Forgetting, if not down right rejecting our Spiritual roots! And, the "reason" FOR Passover.

(Mark 4
16 And these are they likewise which are sown on stony ground; who, when they have heard the word, immediately receive it with gladness;
17 And have no root in themselves, and so endure but for a time: afterward, when affliction or persecution ariseth for the word's sake, immediately they are offended.)

"INSTEAD OF" fighting the GOOD Fight, on "All Saints Day?" Let's "pay tribute" in the HOPES of warding off "evil", by giving them candy on halloween!, ON THE DAY BEFORE! :unsure:

The influence of Lemmings (peer pressure), is very real! Just as "traditions of man", which make void the Word of God. Is very real!

How can any man, woman of God, expect the Father to send Jesus back, when we can't even do the Father's bidding?
Psalm 110
The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, UNTIL(,) I make thine enemies thy footstool.
2 The Lord shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: RULE THOU IN THE MIDST OF THINE ENEMIES.

(disclaimer)
Of course! Love "covers" a multitude of sin (falling short). Just as converting a soul to Christ "covers", a multitude of sin.

If one never seeks in the looking for the "sin" (falling short) that love doesn't cover? One would never find it.
Doesn't mean there ain't none though. IOW? There are some things that be true! Irregardless if one believes it/them, or not.



 

preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
1,675
240
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Here's something interesting i heard a preacher point out yesterday:
Christ didn't rise on Passover. He offered Himself on Passover and rose on Firstfruits. So 'Easter' isn't a substitution for Passover at all but for Firstfruits.

Leviticus 23:9-14
And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, When ye be come into the land which I give unto you, and shall reap the harvest thereof, then ye shall bring a sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest unto the priest: And he shall wave the sheaf before the LORD, to be accepted for you: on the morrow after the sabbath the priest shall wave it. And ye shall offer that day when ye wave the sheaf an he lamb without blemish of the first year for a burnt offering unto the LORD. And the meat offering thereof [shall be] two tenth deals of fine flour mingled with oil, an offering made by fire unto the LORD [for] a sweet savour: and the drink offering thereof [shall be] of wine, the fourth [part] of an hin. And ye shall eat neither bread, nor parched corn, nor green ears, until the selfsame day that ye have brought an offering unto your God: [it shall be] a statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.

This takes place on an 8th day, and is the day that Pentecost is counted from ((50 days from this offering - also an 8th day))
Please explain why you think Lev. is applicable from the OT /Old Covenant too the NT/New Covenant?
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
24,708
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Please explain why you think Lev. is applicable from the OT /Old Covenant too the NT/New Covenant?
i believe that Christ did not lay His life down nor raise it up on a random day.
He chose a specific day to be crucified and a specific day to rise, and they were feast days He had given a couple thousand years beforehand.
He didn't give the feast days at random either, but they were meant to be shadows of how He would do these things in the flesh as the Christ later.

They're not separable, in my mind, and it's a bit of a chicken and egg thing as to why He chose the day and why He gave the day.

So, this is relevant to the whole Easter thing - because the Nicene council formally disconnected the observance of His death and resurrection from the days and the calendar by which the days are determined. Furthermore they did it purposefully with the mindset of disconnecting Christian celebration of His work with the feast days God had given and chosen to do His work on. They specifically wanted to completely dissociate what they called Easter with anything having to do with any practice of Judaism - I can quote Constantines own words about it later, when I'm at a PC to better access them ((posting from phone atm)), but he specifically gave the argument that they should separate the holiday from its Hebrew origin.

I think that's misguided.

So I'm not saying we should be practicing the rites of Leviticus, I'm saying we should recognize that God wasn't doing these things according to a random time frame; He was doing them according to the Levitical calendar
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
2,529
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Seems to me you are saying that 'easter' is an imposter taking the place of passover.

I think history bears that out, and I agree. :)
Umm not really. I’ve also been thinking of Easter as East as an etymological view. This is by far also true as OED gave or traces the root in cognate to the Sanskrit ursd dawn and in reference to the East. Sanskrit is an Indian language known to be the oldest member of Indo-European family. Biblically pertaining to the star in the east or the day dawn rising at the east. This speak of the Sun of righteousness, the Passover lamb (Christ) would have fulfilled the prophecy of his own resurrection. While, I am not discounting the fact of another Easter that would mean the fertility or birth by a goddess as seen its etymological roots in the bible in the name of Astaroth, Astoreth, Astarte, Istar, hence, Easter.

It is here also to note that the Hebrew pesach is without a doubt the Passover pertaining to the Hebrew people under the house passing over because of the blood and its equivalent Gk. Pascha is well translated by 28 other times but not on the passage under review. I believe, that after much careful deliberation, debates or thorough examination by the KJ translators concluded that the Gk. pascha be translated as Easter and not Passover which is the case.

The KJ Translators were known for their adherence to the scriptural authority in “comparing scriptures with scriptures” beside the considered full well the context in order to have the precision in rendering the Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek in English word so that the Bible would not contradict itself.

The question, is it an error in the KJB to translate Gk pascha to easter? Certainly it’s a No. The Greek can be translated in the various ways in the English base on the context. Case in a point where the Greek word parakleetos is a Comforter but can also be translated as an advocate. So too with paska, pascha they can also be translated in the other way where it’s considered contextually base.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
2,529
484
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All of which support the term, "Passover" rather than "Easter".
Dino/ Post/ Nayobear, I have to assumed you have well read those passages and hoping to give me your understanding. The passages are in support of the passover yet that is only a point over the case and the other point of interest to look into is the feast of the unleavened bread. Perhaps you can shed more light as these are the focal background in our review.

Thanks in advance...
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
24,708
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Umm not really. I’ve also been thinking of Easter as East as an etymological view. This is by far also true as OED gave or traces the root in cognate to the Sanskrit ursd dawn and in reference to the East. Sanskrit is an Indian language known to be the oldest member of Indo-European family. Biblically pertaining to the star in the east or the day dawn rising at the east. This speak of the Sun of righteousness, the Passover lamb (Christ) would have fulfilled the prophecy of his own resurrection. While, I am not discounting the fact of another Easter that would mean the fertility or birth by a goddess as seen its etymological roots in the bible in the name of Astaroth, Astoreth, Astarte, Istar, hence, Easter.

It is here also to note that the Hebrew pesach is without a doubt the Passover pertaining to the Hebrew people under the house passing over because of the blood and its equivalent Gk. Pascha is well translated by 28 other times but not on the passage under review. I believe, that after much careful deliberation, debates or thorough examination by the KJ translators concluded that the Gk. pascha be translated as Easter and not Passover which is the case.

The KJ Translators were known for their adherence to the scriptural authority in “comparing scriptures with scriptures” beside the considered full well the context in order to have the precision in rendering the Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek in English word so that the Bible would not contradict itself.

The question, is it an error in the KJB to translate Gk pascha to easter? Certainly it’s a No. The Greek can be translated in the various ways in the English base on the context. Case in a point where the Greek word parakleetos is a Comforter but can also be translated as an advocate. So too with paska, pascha they can also be translated in the other way where it’s considered contextually base.
the context of Acts 12:4 is not such that Herod was planning to wait until after the direction East in order to bring Peter before the people.

the Greek word for the direction 'East' is Anatolí
the Latin word for the direction 'East' is Orientem


here is an excerpt of the Nicene council's letter to Alexandria, translated into English:

We have also gratifying intelligence to communicate to you relative to unity of judgment on the subject of the most holy feast of Easter: for this point also has been happily settled through your prayers; so that all the brethren in the East who have heretofore kept this festival when the Jews did, will henceforth conform to the Romans and to us, and to all who from the earliest time have observed our period of celebrating Easter. Rejoicing therefore in these conclusions and in the general unanimity and peace, as well as in the extirpation of all heresy, receive with the greater honor and more abundant love our fellow-minister and your bishop Alexander, who has greatly delighted us by his presence, and even at his advanced age has undergone extraordinary exertions in order that peace might be re-established among you. Pray on behalf of us all, that the things decided as just may be inviolably maintained through Almighty God, and our Lord Jesus Christ, together with the Holy Spirit; to whom be glory for ever. Amen.

here is the original text of the same excerpt, as it was written in Greek:

Εὐαγγελιζόμεθα δὲ ὑμῖν, περὶ τῆςσυμφωνίας τοῦ ἁγιωτάτου Πάσχα, ὅτι ὑμετέραις εὐχαῖς κατωρθώθη καὶ τοῦτο τὸ μέρος· ὥς τε πάντας τοὺς ἐν τῇ ἑῴᾳ ἀδελφοὺς, τοὺς μετὰ τῶν Ἰουδαίων τὸ πρότερον ποιοῦντας, συμφώνως Ῥωμαίοις καὶ ἡμῖν, καὶ πᾶσιν ὑμῖν τοῖς ἐξ ἀρχαίου μεθ' ἡμῶνφυλάττουσι τὸ Πάσχα, ἐκ τοῦ δεῦρο ἄγειν. Χαίροντες οὖν ἐπὶ τοῖς κατορθώμασι, καὶ τῇ τῆς εἰρήνης συμφωνίᾳ, καὶ ἐπὶ τὸ πᾶσαναἵρεσιν ἐκκοπῆναι, ἀποδέξασθε μὲν μετὰ μείζονος τιμῆς καὶ πλείονος ἀγάπης τὸν συλλειτουργὸν ἡμῶν, ὑμῶν δὲ ἐπίσκοπον Ἀλέξανδρον, τὸν εὐφράναντα ἡμᾶς ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ, καὶ ἐν ταύτῃ τῇ ἡλικίᾳ τοσοῦτον πόνον ὑποστάντα ὑπὲρ τοῦ εἰρήνηνγενέσθαι καὶ παρ' ὑμῖν. Εὔχεσθε δὲ ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁπάντων, ἵνα τὰ καλῶς ἔχειν δόξαντα, ταῦτα βέβαια μένῃ, διὰ τοῦ παντοκράτοροςΘεοῦ, καὶ διὰ τοῦ Κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, σὺν Ἁγίῳ Πνεύματι· ᾧ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας. Ἀμήν.
now, what do we expect? that the Greek word used for 'Easter' in this document is some form of Anatolí ?
that it's some form on Anastasis ((Greek for '
resurrection')) ?

well, guess what. they used the word Πάσχα -- which is, "Pascha"


isn't that interesting?
it looks like the word 'Easter' doesn't exist in the actual documents of the Nicene council. they were not naming a 'new feast' to supplant those of the old covenant - they were literally changing the day of Passover from what the Torah says it should be.

the word 'East' is in the text, too, btw -- and it's 'ἑῴᾳ' -- eos. it's not like this was not part of their vocabulary.

now i'm really starting to wonder where this word Eos-tare first entered the church.. and i'm looking at you, dark-ages-Germania, home of Teutonic dawn/east/fertility deities with suspiciously similar names..
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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Biblically pertaining to the star in the east or the day dawn rising at the east. This speak of the Sun of righteousness, the Passover lamb (Christ) would have fulfilled the prophecy of his own resurrection.
i am interested to hear of any connection you can find in the Bible between worship of Venus or a rising Sun with Passover.

what i can think of off-hand, Biblically speaking, is Jeremiah being told not to pray for this people who were given over to worshiping the sun and the planet. these same people happened to have built a lot of Ashereh poles in their land..

.. but maybe you can enlighten me :)
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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here is an image of the text of Acts 12:1-4 from the Moutier-Grandval Bible, completed around 840 AD and commissioned by the emperor Charlemagne. it is a transcription of Jerome's Latin.

843.JPG


it says "
Pascha"

no '
Eos-tare' here..
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
24,708
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here is an image of the beginning of Mark 14 from the Bodmin Gospels -- written around 875 AD in an Irish-variant form of Latin.
the text does not include Acts, but interesting since later German Bibles would have '
Ostern' all over the NT as a replacement for the Latin / Greek Pascha, and because this book also has old English portions ((tho the scripture text is all in this Latin variant))

bodmin.JPG


clearly, no 'Eostare' here -- but this is to be expected
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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This is from Wikipedia - I'd like to find first sources to be sure but can't put time towards it at the moment:

In Old English the form Pascan was used by Byrhtferth (c. 970 – c. 1020) and the form Pasches in the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle entry for 1122

So, in the 10th-12th century according to this there was still no word 'easter' in English. English speaking peoples said 'pascha' or a variation of it transliterated.

The implication is that, as we saw in the Nicene council letter to Egypt, the church hadn't thought of what they had done as introduced a 'new' holy day. They were changing the days and times of passover.

The earliest record I've found so far of a wird other than pascha being used for this eostare feast is in 15th-16th century German Bibles. Among European languages, I've only seen easter or Oster in this later 'high German' and English after Tyndale - the wiki entry, if I can verify it, indicates that early English, through the 12th century, did not use any word form of eostare.

Any middle ages reference anyone else can find I am interested to see ;)
 

Tinkerbell725

Senior Member
Jul 19, 2014
3,607
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Philippines Age 39
This is from Wikipedia - I'd like to find first sources to be sure but can't put time towards it at the moment:

In Old English the form Pascan was used by Byrhtferth (c. 970 – c. 1020) and the form Pasches in the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle entry for 1122

So, in the 10th-12th century according to this there was still no word 'easter' in English. English speaking peoples said 'pascha' or a variation of it transliterated.

The implication is that, as we saw in the Nicene council letter to Egypt, the church hadn't thought of what they had done as introduced a 'new' holy day. They were changing the days and times of passover.

The earliest record I've found so far of a wird other than pascha being used for this eostare feast is in 15th-16th century German Bibles. Among European languages, I've only seen easter or Oster in this later 'high German' and English after Tyndale - the wiki entry, if I can verify it, indicates that early English, through the 12th century, did not use any word form of eostare.

Any middle ages reference anyone else can find I am interested to see ;)

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_calendars


The first Christians, Jewish and Gentile, were certainly aware of the Hebrew calendar.[nb 4]Jewish Christians, the first to celebrate the resurrection of Jesus, timed the observance in relation to Passover.

Direct evidence for a more fully formed Christian festival of Pascha (Easter) begins to appear in the mid-2nd century. Perhaps the earliest extant primary source referring to Easter is a mid-2nd-century Paschal homilyattributed to Melito of Sardis, which characterizes the celebration as a well-established one.[42] Evidence for another kind of annually recurring Christian festival, those commemorating the martyrs, began to appear at about the same time as the above homily.[43]

While martyrs' days (usually the individual dates of martyrdom) were celebrated on fixed dates in the local solar calendar, the date of Easter was fixed by means of the local Jewish[44] lunisolar calendar. This is consistent with the celebration of Easter having entered Christianity during its earliest, Jewish, period, but does not leave the question free of doubt.[45]

The ecclesiastical historian Socrates Scholasticus attributes the observance of Easter by the church to the perpetuation of its custom, "just as many other customs have been established", stating that neither Jesus nor his Apostles enjoined the keeping of this or any other festival. Although he describes the details of the Easter celebration as deriving from local custom, he insists the feast itself is universally observed.[46]
 

posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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The ecclesiastical historian Socrates Scholasticus attributes the observance of Easter by the church to the perpetuation of its custom, "just as many other customs have been established", stating that neither Jesus nor his Apostles enjoined the keeping of this or any other festival. Although he describes the details of the Easter celebration as deriving from local custom, he insists the feast itself is universally observed.[46]
Socrates, not the 5th century BC philosopher but 5th century AD historian, writes in Greek about the churches practice and he uses the word "Pascha" not any form of Eostare or anistasis or anatolí
 
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_calendars


The first Christians, Jewish and Gentile, were certainly aware of the Hebrew calendar.[nb 4]Jewish Christians, the first to celebrate the resurrection of Jesus, timed the observance in relation to Passover.

Direct evidence for a more fully formed Christian festival of Pascha (Easter) begins to appear in the mid-2nd century. Perhaps the earliest extant primary source referring to Easter is a mid-2nd-century Paschal homilyattributed to Melito of Sardis, which characterizes the celebration as a well-established one.[42] Evidence for another kind of annually recurring Christian festival, those commemorating the martyrs, began to appear at about the same time as the above homily.[43]

While martyrs' days (usually the individual dates of martyrdom) were celebrated on fixed dates in the local solar calendar, the date of Easter was fixed by means of the local Jewish[44] lunisolar calendar. This is consistent with the celebration of Easter having entered Christianity during its earliest, Jewish, period, but does not leave the question free of doubt.[45]

The ecclesiastical historian Socrates Scholasticus attributes the observance of Easter by the church to the perpetuation of its custom, "just as many other customs have been established", stating that neither Jesus nor his Apostles enjoined the keeping of this or any other festival. Although he describes the details of the Easter celebration as deriving from local custom, he insists the feast itself is universally observed.[46]

As "the world" in those days, was not nearly as "connected", as they are in these last days? It is not unusual that something (seemingly) as unique as "local customs", and the influences they apparently had (which were more pagan/heathenistic) in theological, as well spiritual, matters, especially in regards to a growing and struggling Church. One would find heated conflicts (something not unsimilar in nature, as to what transpires in the BDF, from time to time).
As the "devil is in the details?" One would have to investigate more fully the "local" governments, of these "pockets of culture", and how much "influence of the mark of the beast", they had. By, not being able to buy, or sell!
I am certain Jesus was referring to the "garden of Eden" incident, in His parable concerning "Wheat and tares." Not to mention "tare planters." In regards to the "fallen ones", and a "time" of their attempted overthrow of the Kingdom of God! Which, by the way, is still their agenda! And, one they do not take lightly, either!
Always "plotting and scheming", against a "peace loving" peoples of faith, with their "camel and the arab" agenda/s. Or, Piece loving agenda/s!
Reminds me of how "they" were continually "petitioning" the Prophet Enoch, in pleading their case before the Most High!
As in all cases? This is not a "fight" that "weakly/weekly" buffet style, stony ground, believers can wage successfully, with the "cake walk" salvation that is being spewed out by the "blue light special" blind shepherd, hirelings, these days.

And, it's not that these "cake walk believers" are not saved, well? Some of them, anyways. But, they "envision themselves," sometimes through no fault of their own, that they'll be "reigning WITH Christ" for those thousand years.
 

posthuman

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Jul 31, 2013
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Perhaps the earliest extant primary source referring to Easter is a mid-2nd-century Paschal homilyattributed to Melito of Sardis, which characterizes the celebration as a well-established one.[42]
Wikis footnote for this reference :

Melito of Sardis. "Homily on the Pascha". Kerux. Northwest Theological Seminary. Archived from the original on 12 March 2007. Retrieved 28 March2007

Notice that it's not called easter; it's called pascha. I've not seen evidence that the word appears in ecclesiastical reference before the 15th century.
We're talking about a change in the scriptural observation of passover per the change in time/date and the addition of many unbiblical human traditions directly connected to pagan practices concerning rites of spring and the Greek goddess Eos.

'easter' is not biblical. Pascha is. Christ did not fulfill the Astarte festival; He fulfills the paschal feasts.
 

John146

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Jan 13, 2016
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Wikis footnote for this reference :

Melito of Sardis. "Homily on the Pascha". Kerux. Northwest Theological Seminary. Archived from the original on 12 March 2007. Retrieved 28 March2007

Notice that it's not called easter; it's called pascha. I've not seen evidence that the word appears in ecclesiastical reference before the 15th century.
We're talking about a change in the scriptural observation of passover per the change in time/date and the addition of many unbiblical human traditions directly connected to pagan practices concerning rites of spring and the Greek goddess Eos.

'easter' is not biblical. Pascha is. Christ did not fulfill the Astarte festival; He fulfills the paschal feasts.
If you'd be interested to read where I get my perspective on Easter (other than the words of the KJV), please read the following, lengthy explanation on why the KJV uses the word Easter and not Passover. If truly interested, please read it all. This is from a friend of a friend of mine. Thanks.

https://brandplucked.webs.com/easter.htm
 

Tinkerbell725

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Jul 19, 2014
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Philippines Age 39
Pascha" meant Easter in the first century

There is no doubt that "Πάσχα" means Easter in modern Greek. The charge, however, is that "Πάσχα" did not mean Easter until centuries after the composition of Acts 12:4. This is not true. In the Gospel of John there is already a distinction being made between the Christian Πάσχα and the Jewish Πάσχα. One of the words for Passover in modern Greek is "Πάσχα των ιουδαίων" (Passover of the Jews). We see this same phrase already in the time of John the Apostle:
  • John 2:13: "And the Jews' passover was at hand...." (και εγγυς ην το πασχα των ιουδαιων)
  • John 11:55: "And the Jews' passover was nigh at hand...." (ην δε εγγυς το πασχα των ιουδαιων)
The fact that John writes, "Jews’ Pascha (πασχα των ιουδαιων)" indicates that there was a need to qualify the word "Pascha" for the immediate audience of John's Gospel. Such a phrase would be redundant unless there were already a distinction between a "Jew's" Paschaand "another" Pascha. Apparently within the first century, Christians had already appropriated the word "Pascha" to refer to the Christian celebration of the resurrection.

Eusebius' testimony is clear that the Apostles were already celebrating the "Saviour's Pascha", which is clearly not the "Jews' Pascha":

"Ζητήσεως δῆτα κατὰ τούσδε οὐ σμικρᾶς ἀνακινηθείσης, ὅτι δὴ τῆς Ἀσίας ἁπάσης αἱ παροικίαι ὡς ἐκ παραδόσεως ἀρχαιοτέρας σελήνης τὴν τεσσαρεσκαιδεκάτην ᾤοντο δεῖν ἐπὶ τῆς τοῦ σωτηρίου πάσχαἑορτῆς παραφυλάττειν, ἐν ᾗ θύειν τὸ πρόβατον Ἰουδαίοις προηγόρευτο, ὡς δέον ἐκ παντὸς κατὰ ταύτην, ὁποίᾳ δἂν ἡμέρᾳ τῆς ἑβδομάδος περιτυγχάνοι, τὰς τῶν ἀσιτιῶν ἐπιλύσεις ποιεῖσθαι, οὐκ ἔθους ὄντος τοῦτον ἐπιτελεῖν τὸν τρόπον ταῖς ἀνὰ τὴν λοιπὴν ἅπασαν οἰκουμένην ἐκκλησίαις, ἐξ ἀποστολικῆς παραδόσεως τὸ καὶ εἰς δεῦρο κρατῆσαν ἔθος φυλαττούσαις, ὡς μηδ' ἑτέρᾳ προσήκειν παρὰ τὴν τῆς ἀναστάσεως τοῦ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν ἡμέρᾳ τὰς νηστείας ἐπιλύεσθαι" (Church History, Book V, 23:1)

"A question of no small importance arose at that time. For the parishes of all Asia, as from an older tradition, held that the fourteenth day of the moon, on which day the Jews were commanded to sacrifice the lamb, should be observed as the feast of the Saviour's passover. It was therefore necessary to end their fast on that day, whatever day of the week it should happen to be. But it was not the custom of the churches in the rest of the world to end it at this time, as they observed the practice which, from apostolic tradition, has prevailed to the present time, of terminating the fast on no other day than on that of the resurrection of our Saviour." (Church History, Book V, 23:1, Translation from www.newadvent.org)​


Those who deny that "Πάσχα" came to mean "Easter" in Apostolic times are unable to explain when the shift in meaning arose. There is no record of councils or debates documenting the shift in the meaning of "Πάσχα" in Greek. There is also no logical reason for the shift in meaning to take place over hundreds of years. As far back as we can document, Greek Christians have accepted that "Πάσχα" refers to the celebration of the Lord's resurrection, which is "Easter". Given John's use of the word and the uncontradicted testimonies of early church fathers, it is far more candid to accept that "Πάσχα" already meant "Easter" in the first century. In the Bible, "Πάσχα" means Passover only when used by Jews or by anyone specifically referring to the Jewish celebration. In passages prior to Christ’s resurrection, the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” because the narrators and characters are still referring to the Jewish festival. The only times the KJV translates “Πάσχα” as “Passover” after the resurrection are in 1 Corinthians 5:7 and Hebrews 11:28. In 1 Corinthians 5:7, the word "passover" refers to the passover lamb rather than the day of the year, so it is correctly translated "passover". In Hebrews 11:28, the narrative refers retrospectively to Moses' conduct, which was before the resurrection, so the word is properly translated "passover". The following diagram explains these distinctions visually:

Passover Timeline 2.jpg