gra,i have read much of what you have posted here and in your other post(a curiosity of the same subject on my part,so i find other ideas helpful),,,its my manner of thinking from rev.1;19,,,so for instance lets say (ad96,i know there's a lot of debate on the correct date of writing,but just for an example)
so using ad 96,,,,Christ said to john,,,
(1)things thou hast seen(past tense to john while he was alive in ad96)
(2)the things which are(present tense to john while he was alive in ad 96)
(3)things which shall be hereafter(future tense to john while he was alive in ad96)
now to me it wouldn't make sense to think that (1)things that thou hast seen to be in reference to "the vision he was seeing of Revelation" because he(Christ) uses the term "hast seen" in the same paragraph in connection with the two other "time frames present and future",,so it seems clear that in this verse he is referring to the past tense in aspect to the life time of john when he states "thou hast seen".
so to me past Christ establishing this to john he then is directing him to write "three sets of things he is about to give him in the Revelation. ,,,,
so the three in aspect to john while alive on patmos would be,,,one set of things he is instructed to write that had already taken place some where for the creation up to that exact point in time,two the things that were taking place in the history of the world at the exact time the Revelation was being given to john,and then the third set of things being given to him(john) that were future tense from the Revelation being given to him in ad96.
i do apologize for asking you here in this thread,i was following the last few post between you and the others in one of the threads you have started you may have already discussed his and i may have missed it if you could direct me to it? to it seems clear by the statement in rev. 1;19 that in or around ad96 one third of the Revelation had already taken place,one third of the Revelation was taking place when this was given to john,which would only leave "one third of the Revelation to still be fulfilled between the Revelation of Christ till the (end?)
i realize that most believe to account for the events described in the Revelation given through John from the time given until now but it as i say seems clear that according to Christ comment that, that would be contrary to the comment made by Christ to john in rev.1;19 ,,,i do apologize again if i am asking this off comment,,,