Romans 3:19-20
What Paul's Saying...
(Following the previous point) The context is “how EVERYONE is under sin”, so here Paul explains how the law makes this possible. So the subject of this passage is “The Law and how *IT* specifically functions”; how it works to reveal unrighteousness (i.e. sin) in the world. In Context, this passage has nothing to do with the works of men, positively or negatively. The subject of this thought is The Law's works...not men's works.
[Letting the bible interpret itself; the same phrase "work of the law" is first used in Romans 2:14-16 and shows that The Law itself has a "work"; a job to perform. Other translations of the same phrase say "the requirements of the law" (the law's requirements), and "the deeds of the law" (the law's deeds).]
Now we know that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God. For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
What Paul's Saying...
(Following the previous point) The context is “how EVERYONE is under sin”, so here Paul explains how the law makes this possible. So the subject of this passage is “The Law and how *IT* specifically functions”; how it works to reveal unrighteousness (i.e. sin) in the world. In Context, this passage has nothing to do with the works of men, positively or negatively. The subject of this thought is The Law's works...not men's works.
[Letting the bible interpret itself; the same phrase "work of the law" is first used in Romans 2:14-16 and shows that The Law itself has a "work"; a job to perform. Other translations of the same phrase say "the requirements of the law" (the law's requirements), and "the deeds of the law" (the law's deeds).]
More Judaizer distortion of Paul's meaning to smuggle "works" into justification by faith,
apart from works.
Since Paul links "works of the law" with "justified" (righteousness), are you saying
the "works of the law" is to perform righteousness?
The law itself performs no work.
The law is powerless, weak and useless (Heb 7:18) to perform any work of righteousness.
The "works of the law" are the deeds of men, in obeying the law.
The purpose of the law is to give knowledge (of sin),
like the purpose of a road sign or street light is to give knowledge (bearing on the driver).
Neither the law nor the road sign/street light perform anything.
"Works of the sign/street light" would be the deeds performed by the drivers,
not by the sign/street light,
just as "works of the law" are the deeds performed by men, not by the law.
Paul says “The Law Speaks” (an action)...and no one is justified because of what The Law *says* (an action).
but no one is held guiltless, in knowingly and deliberately causing harm, because of what
the road sign/street light "says."
(If a little old lady is still in the intersection when the light "speaks" go, I am not held guiltless
because the light "says" go.)
Point: "speaking" and "saying" are not actions of the law, road sign or street light.
The Law has a necessary job to do: to show what is a sin (and why we are ALL unrighteous). So “the works of the law” [i.e.
"The Law's works" or "The Law's requirements" or "The Law’s actions"] hold the world accountable to a Just God.
"The Law's works" or "The Law's requirements" or "The Law’s actions"] hold the world accountable to a Just God.
begun in 1:18-32, that all Gentiles are unrighteous,
moving in 2:1-3:8 to all Jews are also unrighteous, as stated in their Scriptures (3:9-19a),
"whatever the law says (vv. 10-18), it says to those who are under the law," (v. 19a), and
then incorporating what he showed in 1:18-32, he
concludes in 3:19b that all mankind is shut up in sin,
"so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God." (Ro 3:19b)
When both natural law (1:18-32, Gentiles) and revealed law (2:1-3:19a, Jews) are taken into account,
the whole world is held accountable to God (Ro 3:19b).