R
RachelBibleStudent
Guest
Do we interpret scripture by the Early Fathers?
Or do we use scripture to interpret scripture?
Because if we are going to be bible Christians then Scripture is what defines its own terms.
Jesus said:
Mar 2:27 And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath:
Mar 2:28 Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
Could you please show me a scripture in which the Lords Day means the day you think?
the reason for referencing the church fathers is to show that this notion that 'the lord's day' refers to the sabbath is a completely modern innovation...-nobody- believed this until modern cults made it up...
scripture simply does not define which day of the week 'the lord's day' is...but until modern times nobody has ever thought that it was anything other than sunday...including the closest followers of the apostles who certainly received the correct teaching from them...
if you are going to claim that the entire christian church including the direct followers of the apostles was blatantly wrong until you came along...then the burden of proof is on you...