This does not explain how/why an atheist would repent. An atheist does not even believe in the existence of God, does not believe in a heaven of hell, therefore does not think he is lost and needs to repent and be saved. The bible can command repentance all it wants to, but as long as an atheist does not believe it he will never repent.
Once an atheist comes to believe in the existence of God, in heaven and hell, realizes he is lost and needs to repent and be saved, then he can choose to repent and believe the gospel. As long as an atheist does not even believe in the existence of God, in heaven or hell, does not realize he is lost and needs to be saved through faith in Christ, then he won't repent.
Here you say "An unbelieving person once convinced that God exists...can now repent
An atheist can "change their mind" and now believe that God exists, but that is not enough to save him. The new direction of this change of mind must include faith in Christ in order for him to be saved (Ephesians 2:8). So an unbelieving person once convicted that God exists can now choose to repent and believe the gospel. There is a difference between believing "mental assent" that God exists (even the demons believe that - James 2:19) and believing the gospel - trusting in Christ's finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of their salvation (Romans 1:16).
So now you are saying one must first believe in God before they can repent. But even though one believes God exists does not mean he will repent. The Jews certainly believed God exists but they did not see themselves as being lost, did not see Jesus as the Messiah therefore would not repent even though they believed God exists.
One must believe in God before they can repent and believe the gospel. It's true that there are people who believe that God exists but will not repent and believe the gospel. There are many professing Christians today who believe "mental assent" in Christ but their trust and reliance is in "water and works." That is not saving faith in Christ. That is faith in water and works and not Christ alone. We must trust exclusively in Christ for salvation in order to be saved. Unfortunately, most trust in works.
But a person will never repent until they first believe the gospel of Christ.
Repent and believe the gospel (Mark 1:15). Why do you reverse the order? Once a person repents "changes their mind" and believes the gospel/trusts in Christ's finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of their salvation, why do they still need to repent in order to become saved? Paul said in Romans 1:16 - For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ for it is the power of God unto salvation for everyone who
BELIEVES.. So those who believe the gospel are still lost and still need to repent in order to become saved? Is that what you are saying?
The Jews would never repent until they first believed the Jesus was the Messiah. Once they accepted Him as the Messiah then they could repent.
Sure, they must first believe that Jesus is the Messiah before they can repent and place their faith in Him for salvation.
Peter did not say repent for the remission of sins, but said be baptized for the remission of sins.
Again, i
n Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. The church of Christ teaches that water baptism was not necessary for salvation under the old law, but is necessary for salvation under the new law. Under the new law, in Acts 2:38, we read -
"Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and under the old law, in Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3, we read - John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a
baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. I'm hearing the same message under the old law. So in Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3 (under the old law), was this baptism of repentance "FOR" (in order to obtain) the remission of sins or "FOR" (in reference to; in regards to) the remission of sins? In Matthew 3:11, we read: I baptize you with water "FOR" repentance. If translated "in order to obtain", the verse does not make sense. I baptize you with water "FOR" (in order to obtain) repentance? or I baptize you with water "FOR" (in reference to - in regards to) repentance?
Remission of sins is equivalent to being saved, so:
Whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins (Acts 10:43). These Gentiles believed, received the Holy Spirit and the remission of sins (vs. 44-47) BEFORE they were water baptized (vs. 48). They received the Holy Spirit when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ BEFORE water baptism. Compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved.
Acts 2:38----------baptized>>>>>>>>remission of sins
Acts 2:38, Acts 3:19--------Repent>>>>>>>>>baptism/parenthetical>>>>>remission of sins.
1 Pet 3:21---------baptism>>>>>>>>>saves
1 Peter 3:21------baptism saves/not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not the part which saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism). We could paraphrase Peter's statement by saying, "Baptism now saves you--not the outward physical ceremony of baptism but the inward spiritual reality which baptism represents."
You need to read it all.
Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins,
The order of the verse, that cannot be changed or altered:
repentance comes BEFORE baptism and baptism comes BEFORE remission of sins.
You're simply trying to rewrite the verse to make it fit your bias instead of taking as it is.
You are trying to force the rest of scripture to conform to your bias doctrine of water salvation. Repentance and believing in Him comes BEFORE remission of sins (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18) and baptism comes AFTER remission of sins (Acts 10:48). The remission of sins is signified, yet not procured in the waters of baptism.
The singular or plural does not change or alter the verse either. All of you repent and let each one of you be baptized for remission of sins. The conjunction "and" ties repentance to baptism making them inseparable and making them both equally essential to salvation. The preposition eis "for" gives the purpose for baptism which is remission of sins.
Again, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical.
No verse say repentance puts one into the death of Christ where one then has access to His shed blood. Yet Rom 6:4 says we are buried with him by baptism into death, NOT repented into His death. Water baptism is symbolic of Christ's death burial and resurrection, NOT repentance. So one is NOT buried in repentance, NOT raised up from repentance to walk in newness of life.
So repentance and remission of sins (Luke 24:47); repent and be converted so that your sins may be blotted out (Acts 3:19); ..repentance unto life (Acts 11:18) means still lost? When one truly repents the new direction of this change of mind is faith in Christ. Such a person is saved. Water baptism is symbolic of Christ's death, and being buried with Him by baptism into death is signified, yet not procured in water baptism. A symbol (water baptism) is not the reality (Spirit baptism), but the
picture of the reality.
Col 2:11,12 says the body of sin is cut away by God when one is buried in baptism,
Circumcision made without hands, "circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit,"
(see - Romans 2:29). Spirit baptism is the reality (made without hands) and water baptism is the picture of the reality.
Being in Christ is the same as being saved and Gal 3:27 says baptized into Christ,
NOT repented into Christ.
Spirit baptism is the reality and water baptism is the picture of the reality. For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body.. (1 Corinthians 12:13). Confusing the picture with the reality has caused a lot of confusion in your theology. In what sense are we water baptized "into Christ?" In the same sense that the Israelites were baptized "into Moses" (metaphorically) indicating their oneness, or solidarity, with him as their leader (1 Corinthians 10:2) just as through water baptism we indicate our oneness, or solidarity with Christ as our Savior. Now does 1 Corinthians 10:2 teach that the Israelites were literally water baptized into the body of Moses? Absolutely not.
Being in the body is equivalent to being saved and 1 Cor 12;13 says baptized into one body
NOT repented into one body.
This is Spirit baptism, not water baptism. At what moment does this occur? Ephesians 1:13 - In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the
gospel of your salvation - having also
believed, (repent and believe the gospel) you were
sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise. BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18).
Acts 22:16 Saul was commanded to arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
Saul was NOT told to wash away thy sins by repenting.
Paul uses this same phrase in Romans 10:13 to describe someone receiving Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior:
“Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”
And notice that nowhere in Romans 10 is water baptism even mentioned. In regards to Acts 22:16 it should be noted that the "calling" used in this passage is a aorist participle in the Greek, which means that its action (the action of "calling on the name of the Lord") precedes the action of the main verb in the sentence of "be baptized." In other words, a literal translation of the verse is, "Arise, get yourself baptized and your sins washed away, calling on His name."
Thus, we get our sins washed away by calling on the name of Jesus Christ, not by water baptism. Once again, "water" baptism is a sign or symbol that follows the salvation of the believer, not the cause of it.
Acts 2:38---------repent+++++++++++be baptized>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>.for remission of sins
Acts 3:19---------repent+++++++++++be converted>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>sins blotted out.
Acts 2:38-----------repent>>>>>>baptized/parenthetical>>>>>>for remission of sins.
Acts 3:19----------repent>>>>>>be converted>>>>>>sins blotted out.
Mark 1:15---------repent>>>>>>believe the gospel>>>>>>saved.
Romans 1:16------gospel>>>>>>power of God unto salvation>>>>>>believes.
Acts 10:43---------believes>>>>>remission of sins.
Since there is just one way to be saved then both verses must say the same thing. One has not been converted, has not accepted the gospel until he has been baptized, Acts 2;41.
One accepts the gospel by believing/trusting in Christ's finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of their salvation. One gets baptized BECAUSE he has accepted the gospel and has been converted. You have it backwards.
Comparing Acts 2:42 with 44 one can see that the verb "believed" in verse 44 includes being baptized in of verse 41. So when Peter commanded the Gentiles to believe that belief included baptism as he commanded them to be water baptized. The command to be water baptized here and in Acts 2:38 make water baptism essential to salvation if for no other reason.
Believed does not include baptism. You don't baptize unbelievers in order to make them believers. Belief is not baptism and belief precedes baptism and we are saved through belief/faith (John 3:15,16,18; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 3:22-28; 4:5; Ephesians 2:8 etc..). It's just that simple. Not hard to understand, just hard for you to ACCEPT. If water baptism was absolutely required for salvation, then God would not make so many statements in which He promises salvation to those who simply BELIEVE. The gospel is hid to those who don't BELIEVE (2 Corinthians 4:3,4).
Also nothing in Acts 10 or 11 changes the order of verses like Acts 2:38 or Mk 16:16 which both have the order of baptism BEFORE salvation, not after.
Baptism in Acts 2:38 is parenthetical. Repentance is unto the remission of sins (Acts 3:19). In Mark 16:16, it's the lack of belief that causes condemnation, not the lack of baptism. The remission of sins/salvation is signified, yet not procured in water baptism. Acts 2:38 and Mark 16:16 do not change the order of events in Acts 10:43-48 or Acts 11:17,18 or Acts 15:8,9. Believing, receiving the Holy Spirit and the remission of sins comes BEFORE water baptism.
Eph 2:8--------faith>>>>>>>>>>>saves
1Pet3:21------baptism>>>>>>>>>saves
Faith saves and faith is not baptism.
Baptism-----not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God, through the resurrection of Christ saves, not the mechanical act of water baptism.
Since there is just one way to be saved then NT faith includes baptism. Peter never said in Acts 15 the Gentiles were saved by faith only. He commanded them to be water baptized for a saving faith includes baptism and is dead without it.
No, faith is not baptism and faith precedes baptism and we are saved through faith. It's just that simple. When will you believe? In Acts 15:7, Peter said - And when there had been much dispute, Peter rose up and said to them: "Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should
hear the word of the gospel and believe. 8 So God, who knows the heart, acknowledged them by
giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us, 9 and made
no distinction between us and them,
purifying their hearts by faith. Peter said nothing about water baptism here. What word stands alone in verses 7 and 9 in connection with hear the word of the gospel and hearts purified by what? Baptism or FAITH? Believers do not get water baptized with a dead faith. The faith of believers is alive before, during and after water baptism. You are confused by what James means by "faith only." He means an empty profession of faith (James 2:14). What good is it if someone
says he has faith but has
no works. A bare profession of faith is not a living faith but a dead faith. Man is saved through faith and not by works, yet genuine faith is confirmed by good works.