Re: The new covenant of Christ Jesus
Stop it with the shoe horning already.
In Heb 8:7-13, the writer is talking without interruption about the "new covenant,"
and is quoting what is called the "new covenant" in Jer 31:31-34.
You could use a basic hermeneutics class.
You are very uninformed, and are teaching misinformation on the old and new covenants.
I will mention to all again what Hebrews 8:1-6 says that leads to Hebrews 8:7-13, and into the following 9th chapter. You are indicating that there are 2 separate covenants being addressed by explanation using the old and new temple as a mediator or something. I'm saying that these 2 scriptures are talking about the new temple, and the old temple, and the ordinances thereof that include the words of the covenant.
New temple as follows
1 Now of the things which we have spoken this is the sum: We have such an high priest, who is set on the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens;
2 A minister of the sanctuary, and of the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched , and not man.
Old temple as follows
3 For every high priest is ordained to offer gifts and sacrifices: wherefore it is of necessity that this man have somewhat also to offer .
4 For if he were on earth, he should not be a priest, seeing that there are priests that offer gifts according to the law:
5 Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things, as Moses was admonished of God when he was about to make the tabernacle: for, See , saith he , that thou make all things according to the pattern shewed to thee in the mount.
New temple as follow
6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
First was with fault so there was need for another
7 For if that first
covenant (added word in KJV) had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
Taking out added word covenant
7 For if that first had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
Then the writer quote Jeremiah in verses 8-12
31 Behold, the days come , saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake , although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying , Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
Then the writer sums it all up, and tells us why he explained it the way he did.
13 In that he saith , A new
covenant,(added word in the KJV) he hath made the first old . Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
Taking out the added word covenant
13 In that he saith , A new he hath made the first old . Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.
Hebrews 9:1 Then verily the first
covenant (added word in the KJV)had also ordinances of divine service, and a worldly sanctuary.
Taking out added word covenant
1 Then verily the first had also ordinances of divine service, and a worldly sanctuary.
I read all this in context, and you seperate the intireity into 2 distinct, and separate meanings that have no relation one with the other.