King James authorized bible vs the rest of other bibles

[Jason0047]

For Proverbs is actually considered a part of inspired Scripture. So obviously it is talking about the written Word of God. For even the Jews sought the Scriptures for eternal life.

 

[Nick01]

Source Used:
Random question, how many times did Jesus quote the OT in the gospels?

It's again a shame you seem to have missed the point of what I wrote - I'm not at all debating whether or not Paul uses the OT Scriptures. My point is that a) his discussion hinges on preachers taking the gospel proclamation verbally to people, and b) the fact of people having heard God's word already through the created order, as evidenced by his quotation of Psalm 19, therefore c) Romans 10:17 is only tangentially referring to the written Scriptures - he uses it to make his point, but he's not actually making a point about the written Scriptures.

Otherwise, I agree with what you wrote in your last two posts. I'm not debating whether the Scriptures are authoritative. I am not debating whether or not the apostles (Paul in particular) considered their words authoritative. I am not debating whether the Scriptures are inspired. I am not debating the disciples used Scripture in their ministry. I am not debating whether or not the Lord told us not to add or subtract from Scripture. What I am discussing is whether or not God has guaranteed that either all copies of the Scriptures would be transmitted inerrantly, whether a particular group of copies would be transmitted inerrantly, or whether a particular copy would be transmitted inerrantly. I haven't seen anything to that effect yet.

 

[Nick01]

Also, does anyone here believe in the Biblical doctrine of Sola Scriptura?
Did anyone here do a study on it?
If you believe in Sola Scriptura, please explain to me how the teaching that there is no perfect Word of God for our day is compatible with that doctrine?

Can you explain why you think the two aren't compatible?

Also, so we can properly define terms, I am going to assume by "perfect Word of God for our day" you mean "English version of the Scriptures that, differences in translation language aside, is 100% identical to the original autographs." If you mean something else, let me know.

 

[Angela53510]

"πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος καὶ ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς ἐλεγμόν, πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ, [SUP]17 [/SUP]ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος, πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος." 2 Tim. 3:16-17

Riddle me this, where in the original languages does it mention the KJV?

It certainly doesn't in the verse above, nor any other passage in the Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic! I guess the reason is because the KJV wasn't written for almost another 16 centuries!

Expecting a reply, since I posted a REAL Bible verse!

And to think I just said the Catholics were a cult in another thread. They are orthodox, compared to you KJV Onlyers!

 

[Jason0047]

Can you explain why you think the two aren't compatible?

Also, so we can properly define terms, I am going to assume by "perfect Word of God for our day" you mean "English version of the Scriptures that, differences in translation language aside, is 100% identical to the original autographs." If you mean something else, let me know.

I will start another thread to explain it. But I need time and my other computerized device, though.

Anyways, may God bless you.
And please be well.

 

[Dan_473]

Which one? Is there one Word of God for you that you can stand behind or is it many Words of God you believe in? If you say you believe the original Greek manuscripts (NT), then which set of Greek manuscripts? How do you know which one is God's Word? Do you think God requires the simple farmer or fisherman or poor man to study the Greek? Is God's Word only for theologians or scribes at a Bible seminary?

specialized study is not required... though I think it's good to put as much effort as you can into learning about God's word...
at the same time anyone can get great benefit from simply meditating on a portion of the word they've heard...

 

[Nick01]

I will start another thread to explain it. But I need time and my other computerized device, though.

Anyways, may God bless you.
And please be well.

As long as you also deal with my other response, which, let's face it, is the meat and potatoes of the discussion. I'd rather deal with that before we head off in another direction.

 

[Dan_473]

Did you set out to look for an error therefore confirming your pre-conceived belief? Or did you trust God by faith and search the Scriptures and pray to God and wait upon God to give you the answer? In other words, you have thrown in the towel of not trusting God's Word is perfect like it states.

trusted God first, definitely... if it's true that the bible doesn't say that God's word is settled on earth, then I wouldn't want to make a claim about the bible it doesn't make for itself...

 

[Dan_473]

God's Word claims that it is perfect (Psalm 12:6 KJV) (Psalm 119:140 KJV) (Proverbs 30:5 KJV) and that it will be preserved for all generations (Psalm 12:7 KJV) and it will stand forever (Isaiah 40:8 KJV) (1 Peter 1:25 KJV). Therefore, seeing Scripture plainly states these facts, it then becomes an issue of a test of your faith in God's Word (See the test the devil gave to Eve in*Genesis 3:1 KJV); Because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe (1 Thessalonians 2:13 KJV). In other words, do you believe you hold the very words of God within your hands like the disciples did?

I see it says the people heard...so I take that to mean they listened to some talks given by Paul... did they hear the entire bible? probably not... so, Word of God then can refer to some portion of the bible, or the message from an apostle, I'm thinking...so, yes, I do believe that i hold it in my hands...which is not to say that i think the KJV is word perfect, or that the word of God is settled on earth...

 

[Dan_473]

That's because you used a Scripture verse. See, that's how it works. I consider this matter to be a spiritual matter because we get our faith from the Word of God (Romans 10:17) and not out of thin air or from the back of a ceral box. Therefore, seeing it is a spiritual matter, I believe Scripture holds the answer or the key so as to resolve this issue. That's why I insist that you use Scripture alone to discuss this topic.

yes, I do believe there's a perfect bible Settled in heaven... word perfect, even... I haven't found yet that the bible says it's settled on earth...

 

[just-me]

I know someone probably had posted this title before. Just to inform that I had 4 other bibles beside I add the King James version. Should I burn the rest of the 4 because I read on the internet as well youtube that our faith to our Lord will dwindled for using the wrong bibles unless we used the King James version.

When reading them compare them and pray for enlightenment. I have many Bible versions myself, and by reading the same verse in all of them (in context) many times is very enlightening. If I cannot grasp the full intent, sooner or later, with others scriptures that I read, a light comes on and I know what I believe is true and confirmed.

 

[Dan_473]

1. There was a spoken Word of God (Here on this Earth).
2. There was and is a written Word of God (Here on this Earth).
3. Acts 17:11 says they received the Word (spoken Word) with an open mind but checked the Scriptures on whether those things be so or not.
4. Scriptures testify of Jesus Christ.
5. All Scripture is profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction, and instruction in righteousness.
6. Scriptures will lead a believer into every good work.
7. Scripture was written down so that we may have an exact account of the truth.
8. We are told not exceed what is written.
9. We are not add or take away from God's Word.
10. There are those who seek to corrupt the Word of God.

Note: This list is taken from Scripture.

humans and human language are always in a state of flux...so yes, the word of God is here, but as soon as it enters human language, it enters the flux...scripture? at babel, God confounds human language...

 

[Dan_473]

1. There was a spoken Word of God (Here on this Earth).
2. There was and is a written Word of God (Here on this Earth).
3. Acts 17:11 says they received the Word (spoken Word) with an open mind but checked the Scriptures on whether those things be so or not.
4. Scriptures testify of Jesus Christ.
5. All Scripture is profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction, and instruction in righteousness.
6. Scriptures will lead a believer into every good work.
7. Scripture was written down so that we may have an exact account of the truth.
8. We are told not exceed what is written.
9. We are not add or take away from God's Word.
10. There are those who seek to corrupt the Word of God.

Note: This list is taken from Scripture.

this seems to be fitting together really well... God's word is settled in heaven, but he doesn't say it's settled here on earth, where it would have to be in a mixed up human language..

 

[JesusIsAll]

"πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος καὶ ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς ἐλεγμόν, πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ,[SUP]17 [/SUP]ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος, πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος." 2 Tim. 3:16-17

Riddle me this, where in the original languages does it mention the KJV?

It certainly doesn't in the verse above, nor any other passage in the Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic! I guess the reason is because the KJV wasn't written for almost another 16 centuries!

Expecting a reply, since I posted a REAL Bible verse!

And to think I just said the Catholics were a cult in another thread. They are orthodox, compared to you KJV Onlyers!

Macedonian malefactor, sowing the seeds of doubt! Heretic! If, as you claim, it was written in the 17th century, how could anybody have been saved before then? I know I've strayed into the Geneva and the NASB, once peeked at a Wycliffe when nobody was looking, but I'm not proud of this. (Barely escaped sliding into damnation when very young, reading a Good News Bible.)

 

[Dan_473]

Also, does anyone here believe in the Biblical doctrine of Sola Scriptura?
Did anyone here do a study on it?
If you believe in Sola Scriptura, please explain to me how the teaching that there is no perfect Word of God for our day is compatible with that doctrine?

by avoiding black and white thinking... pro 1:4*To give subtilty to the simple...there are many great translations and manuscripts out there...the KJV is one of them...just because a word or two is messed up doesn't mean you have to throw the whole thing out... or just because it's in a mixed up human language...

 

[Dan_473]

And what do the following verses say?

Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.*For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake*as they were*moved by the Holy Ghost.

In other words, how can you have private interpretation of Scripture if there is no sure Word of prophecy written down for us to know?

not sure if I'm following you here... to have a private interpretation, wouldn't you just pick up a bible and make up your own interpretation to something in it?

 

[Jason0047]

Uh, your not getting it. If a contract lawyer wrote a letter to your family about how you would inherit property from somebody's estate, and then somebody else came along who was a a master at creating counterfeit contracts whereby he altered your contract for your family by putting his own private interpretation to words that were already in the contract to make it sound like he would get a cut of the take, then that would be a change to the contract. See, the KJV produces a certain kind of faith that is different than the faith produced by those who are against an Inerrant Present Day Word because they each say things that are different. I will attempt to explain this in more detail in my upcoming new posts.

 

[Agricola]

I was going to reply but you put no bible verse in your post, so guess I wont...

 

[Kerry]

The king James is the most accurate is it a home run , no it is not. Then we must learn the Hebrew and the Greek until then we do not know the word of God. Because the word of God is hidden in these languages. The English translations have nothing. they are trash and refuge. In order to be a true christian we must know Hebrew and Aramaic and Greek. If you do not know these languages then you are damned to hell fire, with no hope and your knowledge is key.

Lie that that is, no matter is you speak Swahili or Spanish, or Arabic. The cross is the same and Hallelujah is the same in any language. Praise God.

 

[Jason0047]

I was going to reply but you put no bible verse in your post, so guess I wont...

I was using an example as a way of illustration of the verses I posted. In other words, I am supporting Scripture.