-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
It's again a shame you seem to have missed the point of what I wrote - I'm not at all debating whether or not Paul uses the OT Scriptures. My point is that a) his discussion hinges on preachers taking the gospel proclamation verbally to people, and b) the fact of people having heard God's word already through the created order, as evidenced by his quotation of Psalm 19, therefore c) Romans 10:17 is only tangentially referring to the written Scriptures - he uses it to make his point, but he's not actually making a point about the written Scriptures.
Otherwise, I agree with what you wrote in your last two posts. I'm not debating whether the Scriptures are authoritative. I am not debating whether or not the apostles (Paul in particular) considered their words authoritative. I am not debating whether the Scriptures are inspired. I am not debating the disciples used Scripture in their ministry. I am not debating whether or not the Lord told us not to add or subtract from Scripture. What I am discussing is whether or not God has guaranteed that either all copies of the Scriptures would be transmitted inerrantly, whether a particular group of copies would be transmitted inerrantly, or whether a particular copy would be transmitted inerrantly. I haven't seen anything to that effect yet.
Otherwise, I agree with what you wrote in your last two posts. I'm not debating whether the Scriptures are authoritative. I am not debating whether or not the apostles (Paul in particular) considered their words authoritative. I am not debating whether the Scriptures are inspired. I am not debating the disciples used Scripture in their ministry. I am not debating whether or not the Lord told us not to add or subtract from Scripture. What I am discussing is whether or not God has guaranteed that either all copies of the Scriptures would be transmitted inerrantly, whether a particular group of copies would be transmitted inerrantly, or whether a particular copy would be transmitted inerrantly. I haven't seen anything to that effect yet.
Can you explain why you think the two aren't compatible?
Also, so we can properly define terms, I am going to assume by "perfect Word of God for our day" you mean "English version of the Scriptures that, differences in translation language aside, is 100% identical to the original autographs." If you mean something else, let me know.
Also, so we can properly define terms, I am going to assume by "perfect Word of God for our day" you mean "English version of the Scriptures that, differences in translation language aside, is 100% identical to the original autographs." If you mean something else, let me know.
"πᾶσα γραφὴ θεόπνευστος καὶ ὠφέλιμος πρὸς διδασκαλίαν, πρὸς ἐλεγμόν, πρὸς ἐπανόρθωσιν, πρὸς παιδείαν τὴν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ, [SUP]17 [/SUP]ἵνα ἄρτιος ᾖ ὁ τοῦ θεοῦ ἄνθρωπος, πρὸς πᾶν ἔργον ἀγαθὸν ἐξηρτισμένος." 2 Tim. 3:16-17
Riddle me this, where in the original languages does it mention the KJV?
It certainly doesn't in the verse above, nor any other passage in the Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic! I guess the reason is because the KJV wasn't written for almost another 16 centuries!
Expecting a reply, since I posted a REAL Bible verse!
And to think I just said the Catholics were a cult in another thread. They are orthodox, compared to you KJV Onlyers!
Riddle me this, where in the original languages does it mention the KJV?
It certainly doesn't in the verse above, nor any other passage in the Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic! I guess the reason is because the KJV wasn't written for almost another 16 centuries!
Expecting a reply, since I posted a REAL Bible verse!
And to think I just said the Catholics were a cult in another thread. They are orthodox, compared to you KJV Onlyers!
I see it says the people heard...so I take that to mean they listened to some talks given by Paul... did they hear the entire bible? probably not... so, Word of God then can refer to some portion of the bible, or the message from an apostle, I'm thinking...so, yes, I do believe that i hold it in my hands...which is not to say that i think the KJV is word perfect, or that the word of God is settled on earth...
When reading them compare them and pray for enlightenment. I have many Bible versions myself, and by reading the same verse in all of them (in context) many times is very enlightening. If I cannot grasp the full intent, sooner or later, with others scriptures that I read, a light comes on and I know what I believe is true and confirmed.
J
Macedonian malefactor, sowing the seeds of doubt! Heretic! If, as you claim, it was written in the 17th century, how could anybody have been saved before then? I know I've strayed into the Geneva and the NASB, once peeked at a Wycliffe when nobody was looking, but I'm not proud of this. (Barely escaped sliding into damnation when very young, reading a Good News Bible.)
by avoiding black and white thinking... pro 1:4*To give subtilty to the simple...there are many great translations and manuscripts out there...the KJV is one of them...just because a word or two is messed up doesn't mean you have to throw the whole thing out... or just because it's in a mixed up human language...
Uh, your not getting it. If a contract lawyer wrote a letter to your family about how you would inherit property from somebody's estate, and then somebody else came along who was a a master at creating counterfeit contracts whereby he altered your contract for your family by putting his own private interpretation to words that were already in the contract to make it sound like he would get a cut of the take, then that would be a change to the contract. See, the KJV produces a certain kind of faith that is different than the faith produced by those who are against an Inerrant Present Day Word because they each say things that are different. I will attempt to explain this in more detail in my upcoming new posts.
Last edited:
K
The king James is the most accurate is it a home run , no it is not. Then we must learn the Hebrew and the Greek until then we do not know the word of God. Because the word of God is hidden in these languages. The English translations have nothing. they are trash and refuge. In order to be a true christian we must know Hebrew and Aramaic and Greek. If you do not know these languages then you are damned to hell fire, with no hope and your knowledge is key.
Lie that that is, no matter is you speak Swahili or Spanish, or Arabic. The cross is the same and Hallelujah is the same in any language. Praise God.
Lie that that is, no matter is you speak Swahili or Spanish, or Arabic. The cross is the same and Hallelujah is the same in any language. Praise God.