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ONE BAPTISM - Ephesians 4:5
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dalconn
Guest
A person can be baptized in water and still be dead in his sins however, when a person gets baptized with,in,and by the Holy Spirit that person is saved to the end of time
I agree that one can be baptized in water and be dead in sins. I don't think Scripture indicates that one was baptized "by" the Spirit, but rather with the Spirit. However, I'm not sure that receiving the Holy Spirit and being baptized with the Holy Spirit are the same thing. I'm not sure all Christians were baptized with the Holy Spirit.
if you have a look at the whole book of Ephesians, not just one snippet of one sentence "one baptism" -- you will find Paul throughout the epistle encouraging us to be in Christ, and extolling all the blessing that God has made and given us in Christ, and proclaiming the salvation and redemption and glory we have in Christ.
Christ Jesus is exactly what we must be immersed in!! in Him are all things for us, and all we have for God is in Him. it is the gospel of Christ we received, not the gospel of H[SUB]2[/SUB]O - every virtue of the common ritual receives it's worth only because it points to Christ and reflects the spiritual reality of our own crucifixion and resurrection, which is in Christ. the Holy Spirit is the guarantee of God to us in Christ -- there is only one immersion, and it is to be immersed in Christ!!
Christ Jesus is exactly what we must be immersed in!! in Him are all things for us, and all we have for God is in Him. it is the gospel of Christ we received, not the gospel of H[SUB]2[/SUB]O - every virtue of the common ritual receives it's worth only because it points to Christ and reflects the spiritual reality of our own crucifixion and resurrection, which is in Christ. the Holy Spirit is the guarantee of God to us in Christ -- there is only one immersion, and it is to be immersed in Christ!!
Ephesians 4:4
There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
Could it be that the meaning of "one baptism" Paul is referring to here is defined properly as the baptism of the Holy Spirit that makes us one with the will of God the Father and Jesus Christ? One body,one Spirit,one hope,one Lord,one faith,one baptism.
John 17:22
And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: 23I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
Ephesians 1:
13In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.
After receiving the promise of the Holy Spirit we share in "one baptism", "one faith" ect,.
I don't see this "one baptism" as meaning from the immersion in water type of baptism as this kind of baptism is not common practice to all believers of Jesus Christ in Christendom.
1Corinthians 1:17
For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
What happens to a believer of Jesus Christ who has not been immersed in water (one form of baptism) but who calls on the name of the LORD? Does your logic say they will go to hell because they were not baptized with water? If so do you not make void these words? "For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."
Ephesians 2:8
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: 9Not of works, lest any man should boast.
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Matthew 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Where was Jesus those three days and nights?
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dalconn
Guest
1 Corinthians 12:13
For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free—and have all been made to drink into one Spirit
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dalconn
Guest
1 Peter 3:19
by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison,
(I would say sheol or hades)
Yes, but when Paul wrote "we were all" he was writing to the Corinthians, not all Christians of all time. The Bible is God's word but it is also real history. If we're going to understand it correctly we need to keep it in context.
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dalconn
Guest
Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today, and forever.
Gods word is more than history...it's our future!
Proper interpretation/exegesis is words are to be taken literally unless something in the context shows otherwise.
"ONE" is literally one
"BAPTISM" would be a literal immersion.
Nothing in the context show either "one" or "baptism" is used in a figurative way, so why would baptism here be anything other than a literal immersion in water, as with the eunuch in Acts 8?
Since there is literally "ONE" baptism in effect then the baptism of 1 Cor 1:14,16 would be the same baptism of 1 Cor 12:13.
In 1 Cor 1:14,16 Paul baptized some of the Corinthians himself and Paul being a human could only administer water baptism, as Christ commissioned disciples (humans) in the great commission to go, teach and baptize, Mt 28:19,20. Phillip the disciple water baptized the eunuch. To get around the necessity of water baptism, some create a second, spirit baptism and violate EPh 4:5 that says there is ONE baptism. This point gets overlooked, dismissed over and over by the anti-water baptism crown so I started this thread to make the error of creating two baptisms stand out.
I have looked through this thread this morning and unless I missed it no one has yet to address 1 Cor 1:14,16 and 1 Cor 12:13 being ONE baptism and not two different baptisms.
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The "not of works" in Eph 2:9 refers to works of merit and not obedience to God. In Acts 10:47,48 God commanded water baptism to the Gentiles and the Gentiles must obey that command to be saved. No obedient works in submitting to God's commands = doing unrighteousness/lost.
No one was ever commanded to be baptized with the Holy Spirit, but man has been commanded to be water baptized as in Acts 10:47,48.
Men are to do what Christ says (MK 16:16) or else man cannot call Him their Lord, Lk 6:46.
To me it sound as if he is letting the readers to know that there is one Baptism, but which one is he is referring to? I doesn't know, but God knows. But only thing that I does know is that if we perceive thing in the natural, we will be judge in that same manner that we has chosen to see it. But I want God to look at my heart, not literally by opening my chest up and seeing it pump, but look at by the spiritual nature.
2 Corinthians 3:6 He has made us competent as ministers of a new covenant—not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life. (this is how they explained in those days, not to take thing literally, but now we has a word for it, and which it is called, "Literally".)
Proper exegesis is words to be taken literally unless context shows otherwise. Nothing in the context of Eph 4:5 shows that baptize is anything other than a literal immersion, as the eunuch was literally immersed in water, Acts 8.
Since there is ONE baptism then the baptism in 1 Cor 1:14,16 is the same ONE baptism as the one in 1 Cor 12:13, correct?
Why then was the eunuch water baptized and not baptized with the Holy Spirit if the one baptism of Eph 4:5 is some kind of spirit baptism?
The thief is not an example of NT salvation but was promised paradise while living under the OT law before Christ's NT law came into effect, Heb 9:16,17.